While I understand there are many potential passages in the Bible of Jesus claiming to be a messiah (which I understand to mean "anointed"), a king, or one through whom it is necessary to know God, I'm interested to know if there are any places where He *literally* claims to be God, God-like, or related to God (i.e. the son of God). Taking the Bible to be a reliable record of what He said (for the sake of this question), what Biblical passages illustrate Jesus literally saying He was God? OP Edit: I see that my question has been edited to say "literally" which has caused a bit of turmoil, so I'll just say that for me "literally" is read to mean "literally stated, or inferred without interpretation". So "I intend to put on foot coverings" does not literally mean shoes, as it could mean socks, but "I intend to drive to the capital city of the country England" means you'll end up in London no matter which way you swing it. Interestingly I did try to ask the Biblical Hermenutics group this question and it was suggested I ask here.

I think everyone knows that the name Jesus is Greek, but why don’t Jehovah’s Witnesses use his Hebrew name, which is closer to *Joshua* than to *Jesus*?

A recent [question](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/91738/do-protestant-trinitarians-see-a-completeness-of-the-canon-of-new-testament-scri?noredirect=1) says: > The number three in the bible is significant. … Three persons are associated with the burning bush which Moses saw (Jehovah, Elohim and the Angel of the Lord). [Exodus 3:1–6 (NKJV)](https://www.blueletterbible.org/nkjv/exo/3/1-6/s_53001) describes this incident: > Now Moses was tending the flock of Jethro his father-in-law, the priest of Midian. And he led the flock to the back of the desert, and came to Horeb, the mountain of *God[Elohim]*. > And **the Angel** of the *LORD[YHWH]* appeared to him in a flame of fire from the midst of a bush. So he looked, and behold, the bush was burning with fire, but the bush was not consumed. > Then Moses said, “I will now turn aside and see this great sight, why the bush does not burn.” > > So when **the LORD[YHWH]** saw that he turned aside to look, **God[Elohim]** called to him from the midst of the bush and said, “Moses, Moses!” And he said, “Here I am.” > > Then *He[3MS]* said, “Do not draw near this place. Take your sandals off your feet, for the place where you stand is holy ground.” > Moreover *He[3MS]* said, “I am the *God[Elohim]* of your father—the *God[Elohim]* of Abraham, the *God[Elohim]* of Isaac, and the *God[Elohim]* of Jacob.” And Moses hid his face, for he was afraid to look upon **God[Elohim]**. This contains 5 instances of “*Elohim*” and 1 of “*YHWH*”, which are indirect references. and 2 instances of “*3MS*”, which are a third person masculine singular pronoun. But, there are three different names directly associated with the being(s) in the flame: - 1 **the Angel** - 1 **YHWH** - 2 **Elohim** At one extreme: - “**Elohim**” could be considered simply as a synonym for “**YHWH**” or “**the Angel**”. - The one explicit reference to "**YHWH**" doesn't require his literal presence within the bush. - I.e. the only being in the burning bush was **the Angel**. At the other extreme, there are actually three distinct beings within the burning bush. Do any denominations teach that Moses was talking with three distinct beings?

Growing up having a Christian background, I was taught to use God/Jesus to refer to the Creator and Son. Recently, I've come across some information stating that our Creator has a Name and that we should use it, the name referring to Yahuah/Yahsuah, which would be in original Hebrew. Given that Jesus was a Jew and the original text was written in ancient Hebrew, would it be fair to say that instead of the more commonly accepted Greek version of His Name, that should we use the Hebrew versions instead? Also, if I'm misunderstanding anything in my post, I'm all ears, I'm just trying to figure out if we've been generalizing the Name and sort of not receiving the full effect of being able to state our Creators name and benefit from praising Him in that way. This, along with knowing that throughout history, things can get sort of lost in translation as we switch from languages. On top of the knowing that devil will do whatever it takes to twist and take the opposite approach of whatever the Creator does. > In the Bible, God declares: >> I am Jehovah. That is my name; I give my glory to no one else. >> Isaiah 42:8 - NWT > “Jehovah” is an English translation of the four Hebrew consonants YHWH, which constitute the divine name. That name appears some 7,000 times in the Hebrew Scriptures. It is used more often than any title, such as “God,” “Almighty,” or “Lord,” and more frequently than any other name, such as Abraham, Moses, or David`

My research into the Council of Nicaea called by the pagan Roman emperor Constantine, shows they Council of Nicaea voted to change the name to iesus kristus by a vote of 161 for & 157 against. Again, why did they vote to change the Name of The Messiah?

Recently there has been a ban on the use of the word Allah to refer to the Christian God. What are the good alternatives to the word Allah in countries where it is banned? I heard Tuhan is one of them.

There is a risk that this question is covered somewhere else between the lines, but I haven't found anything specific enough. What is the prevalence (ideally in numbers or in percentages) of the names of the Christian deity? To be more specific, **which names did early Christian sources articulate in their very own words**? - **No translations**, only counting the very original writing and only writings where the source language is certain. - Only from Christian or Jewish historians and/or writers, **excluding secular sources** and the Bible itself. - Only **1st century BC until 1st century AD**. I am aware that we do not have many writers for that time period, but 1 or 2 confirmed sources are already a great start. - Examples for names include **ΘΕOC (Theos), ΚYΡIΟY (Kurios), יהוה‎ (YHWH)** ... et al, excluding adjectives or descriptions of His character. When we look e.g. at the works of Josephus, we see that he uses in Antiquitates Judaicae alone the term 'THEOS' more than 1300 times. Let us lay aside our prevalent bias for Modern Hebrew and against Koine Greek, and have a balanced view about how the people in that time actually called Him.

Background = Referring to God as Jehovah is a known practice by Jehovah's Witnesses as written by [Raymond Franz](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Raymond_Franz) in *In Search of Christian Freedom* in 1991: > The fact remains that today no religious group of any size uses the > name "Jehovah" with such intense frequency as does that of Jehovah's > Witnesses. That name predominates throughout their literature. Among > Jehovah's Witnesses it has become almost strange to speak of "God" > without prefacing the term by saying "Jehovah God", while the term > "Lord" is quite rare in their expressions. They read "Lord" in the > Bible but hardly ever use it in their own speech extemporaneously. It > is almost a liturgical form for them in most prayers to initially > address these to "Jehovah" or "Jehovah God". However, the above was written [after his expulsion](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Raymond_Franz#Expulsion) , and thus may not carry any significant doctrinal weight. Question = Are there other denominations or religions that understand God's personal name as the form "Jehovah"?

*Edit* > "This question is similar to: Are the words that Jesus spoke the > Logos?. If you believe it’s different, please edit the question, make > it clear how it’s different and/or how the answers on that question > are not helpful for your problem."* This isn't the same. The answer is inadequate with no "scriptural" basis, explanation for Exodus 3:15, and is based off of sheer conjecture. ---------- Greetings and peace be with you. I hope this isn't too controversial, for all I care about is the truth. I was an atheist for over 20+ years who "converted" just 3 years ago. Not seeing "jesus" in the original Greek writings, and the nomina sacra being used in the Codex Sinaiticus and Vaticanus instead of "ΙΗΣΟΥΣ" led me to a deeper study. It goes from "IY"(Nomina Sacra), "ΙΗΣΟΥΣ/Ἰησοῦς", "Iesus", and then to "Jesus". But what really matters is The Word itself. What does the Word say? John 1:1 > In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word > was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through Him all things were > made, and without Him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In Him was > life, and that life was the light of men. "Word" is from the Greek word "Logos", that is normally translated as "Word", but can also be as "Speech". HE was Elohim(God) and with Elohim from the beginning. The Son was the first "born" over all creation, meaning HE was not "created".(Colossians 1:15) Through Him all things were made, and without Him nothing was made that has been made. HE was called "The Author of Life".(Acts 3:15) HE even calls HIMSELF "the Originator of God’s creation".(Revelation 3:14) Paul even says HE was, "Given The Name above all Names". We are told that YHWH is the Most High over all, for David said, "For You, O YHWH, are Most High over all the earth; You are exalted far above all gods."(Psalm 97:9), as just one example. HE is also "The Prophet" who was told to come as Israel's mediator just like Moses.(Deuteronomy 18:15-19, Acts 7:37) We see that YHWH created the Heaven and Earth by HIS Voice... The "Logos", or the Hebrew equivalent "Dabar". Psalm 148:5 > Let them praise the name of YHWH, for He gave the command and they > were created. Genesis 1:3 > And Elohim(God) said, “Let there be light,” and there was light. So according the the writings(scripture) The Son is the literal Voice of Elohim(God). Who was born, not created, meaning the first thing The Father did was speak. Then, everything made through that Voice(The Son). The question is wouldn't that mean HE, The Son, told Moses HIS Name in Exodus 3:15? Can we now take John 5:43, and John 17:11-12 literal? Exodus 3:15 - Literal Standard Version > And God says again to Moses, “Thus you say to the sons of Israel: > YHWH, God of your fathers, God of Abraham, God of Isaac, and God of > Jacob, has sent me to you; this [is] My Name for all time, and this > [is] My memorial, to generation [and] generation. John 5:46 > If you had believed Moses, you would believe Me, because he wrote > about Me.

Jehovah's Witnesses, as one example of a group who denies that Jesus is God, claim that Revelation 22:13 is a reference to Jehovah God and not Jesus: > I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end.”  It is spoken to John by an angel and not directly by either Jehovah God or Jesus (Rev. 22:8) Revelation 22:6 says that **God sent this angel** to John: > And he said to me, “These words are trustworthy and true. And the Lord, the God of the spirits of the prophets, has sent his angel to show his servants what must soon take place.”  The "he" in the above verse is the angel from verse 22:1 and 8: > Then the angel showed me the river of the water of life, bright as crystal, flowing from the throne of God and of the Lamb - v.1 > > I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I heard and saw them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed them to me - v.8 Later in verse 22:16 Jesus himself confirms to be the one who sent the angel: > “**I, Jesus, have sent my angel** to testify to you about these things for the churches. I am the root and the descendant of David, the bright morning star.” What exegetical proof is there that the Alpha and Omega statement of verse 13 is not applied equally to both Jehovah God and Jesus since **both sent the same angel in the same instance** to proclaim it? Or put another way, how can this be reconciled with the non-trinitarian belief that Jesus is not God? 

Non-Christian here. I have heard that "God damn it" or "God damn [that person]" is blasphemy because you are telling God what to do. But other interpretations are that it's only blasphemy to misrepresent what God told you to do, like "God told me to hurt that person".

Latter-day Saints, like many Christians, are encouraged to not use phrases like "Oh my God!" because they are seen as violations of the commandment to not take the name of God "in vain." However, in some languages (e.g. Arabic), God's name appears frequently in common phrases and is not considered offensive by most. Has an LDS leader ever commented on the application of this commandment in other cultural contexts? Has an exception ever been made for cultures, like Arab culture, where it is so common? (I am asking this in an LDS context specifically, although I understand this issue is applicable more broadly as well.)

I currently came across some question regarding the name of the Father in the Trinity, God the creator. I have seen that a lot of people use the tetragrammaton YHWH especially in the case of Judaism, but I also have come across Jehovah and I have others claim the name of the father to be Yahweh. I understand that this is more Judaism focused but I think it deeply should concern us Christians partially because I have come across people all over the internet using the name of the Father to make really outlandish, blasphemous and heretical claims as to the origins of Christianity and Judaism and I personally feel very strongly about it because it not only changes how people look at Christianity and Judaism as a faith but also because it is outright disrespectful for the Abrahamic faiths in general. And so because I want clarity on this subject I want to know if as a Christian, one should attribute the name of the Father as Jehovah or Yahweh? Because the tetragrammaton יהוה keeps the vowels hidden, but again I think it matters because people are associating different agendas to the name of the Father. Edit: For added context as to what the claims that had been made by people is when I came across people and scholars saying that Yahweh was an ancient Canaanite God among a pantheon of gods and even saying he had a goddess wife and in this case I definitely think it matters because what in the world is happening here. People are trying to discredit the authenticity of the Abrahamic faith. I personally think this is blasphemous and actually an attack at someone's faith and believe.

*Sefer Ha-Mitzvoth of Maimonides*, Volume two, Negative Commandment 63: "Neither shalt thou profane the name of they God: I am the Lord." Lev. XVIII, 21. "And you shall not let any of your seed pass through the fire to Molek, neither shall you profane את eth-the name of your ELOHIYM: I am YAHUAH." Leviticus 18:21, *eth-Cepher*. את "eth" appears many times in the Scriptures, א (tau) ת (alep) in Hebrew order, is "beginning to end" in English order. The LXX came about circa 300 B.C. Subsequently, the Jews compromised with Greek philosophy, and by 265 B.C. placed a ban on using the Set-Apart Names, *Yehueh* and *Elohim*, and replaced them with *Lord* and *God* (and variations thereof). Those substitutions are found in nearly all English translations of Scripture. "And you shall not swear by My Name to a falsehood; nor shall you pollute the name of your Elohim; I AM Yehueh." Leviticus 19:12, *eth-Cepher*. "You shall not take the name of Yehueh your Elohim in vain; for Yehueh will not leave unpunished the one who takes His name in vain." Exodus 20:7. "How long shall this be in the heart of the prophets that prophesy lies? yea, they are prophets of the deceit of their own heart; Which think to cause את eth-my people to forget my name by their dreams which they tell every man to his neighbour, as their fathers have forgotten my name for Ba`al." Yermeyahu 23:26-27, *eth-Cepher*. During the times since the Dead Sea Scroll were found, hundreds, if not thousands more writings have been found that prove the original Hebrew and Aramaic truths have been highjacked by the traditions brought from the Judeo-Greco-Roman-Latin as seen in our Bibles. Why does this practice continue? Why are our leaders, pastors, and teachers not restoring these Set-Apart Names in our churches? Shalom.

**Accordring to Trinitarians who is this person with a form, sitting on His throne?** Daniel 7:9-27 New King James Version Vision of the Ancient of Days > 9 “I watched till thrones were put in place, **And the Ancient of Days > was seated**; His garment was white as snow, And the hair of His head > was like pure wool. His throne was a fiery flame, Its wheels a burning > fire; 10 A fiery stream issued And came forth from before Him. A > thousand thousands ministered to Him; Ten thousand times ten thousand > stood before Him. The court was seated, And the books were opened. > > 11 “I watched then because of the sound of the pompous words which the > horn was speaking; I watched till the beast was slain, and its body > destroyed and given to the burning flame. 12 As for the rest of the > beasts, they had their dominion taken away, yet their lives were > prolonged for a season and a time. > > 13 “I was watching in the night visions, And behold, One like the Son > of Man, Coming with the clouds of heaven! He came to the Ancient of > Days, And they brought Him near before Him. 14 Then to Him was given > dominion and glory and a kingdom, That all peoples, nations, and > languages should serve Him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion, > Which shall not pass away, And His kingdom the one Which shall not be > destroyed.

I am currently working on a religious drama and outsmarted myself. I come to you for help. Growing up Jewish, I did not hear the term Yahweh until I was 14 in Western Civilization. "Well, you know, right? It's, you know, God." And my reply, "I have no idea what you're talking about, and seriously, there isn't even a *w* in Hebrew so try again." Nor in Ancient Greek! Although, some would say the Hebrew letter *vav* can behave like a *w*. Next, my Torah portion included Exodus 3:14 (and I gotta tell you, reading off an animal skin scroll is cool!). It says *Eh-yeh asher Eh-yeh*. Even among Jews, there is some controversy because of limitations within Hebrew of future tense. However, "I shall be what I shall be" is without fault as an English translation of the Hebrew. Certainly the Christian Bible "I am who [what] I am" is a very different statement. The Torah has been meticulously transcribed letter by letter for 2600 years So I asked a (Conservative) rabbi. We agreed the line from Exodus 3:14 contained neither a *Yah* nor a *weh*. "So, Rabbi, where does this word come from?" She says, "Well it really has nothing to do with Exodus 3:14. Here read this." And I read, "*Barukh atah Adonai--*" "You can stop there," she says. "The third word does not state 'Adonai.' Why do you say that?" And my response is "Because that [what I read] is how we spell our Lord's name on paper--probably to prevent us from being insulting." And she says "And what does it actually read?" My Hebrew is not so great but I manage "*Yeh-vah?*" She says, "That's the best I can do." Although I might benefit from seeing a Protestant minister, I wound up with a visit at a nearby Catholic Church. Although we came to no further conclusion on the matter, we agreed that Yeshua was an awfully nice Hebrew name. I've read quite a bit over the years on the subject. Most of the commentary is either too mystical or too one-sided to be useful to my project or me. Specifically, how did "Yahweh" become a word of such prominence in Western literature and lexicon? I've redacted the latter part of my question, and thank you for your information thus far. For clarification, I'll add: YHVH, or whatever you want to call it, is little more than a placeholder in modern Hebrew prayers; it is simply not said, and has been further redacted to YY. I've seen it a million times, but I just say Lord ("Adonai"). The idea that the placeholder held any real significance was lost on me until much later in life. I do not know what was spoken in biblical times, but that doesn't matter. The discussion of Jehovah below is helpful, but as long as I'm still open for business ... Edit: I recently asked an Orthodox rabbi. Orthodox Judaism tends to be more mystical, if you will (Chabad.org). The response: "It is actually one of many names for the Divine. ... It was not used in general prayers during the times of the Temple [Kings]. ... It is unknown what was spoken during the time of Moses."

**”I am who am!”** What does this expression mean? God expressed Himself like so in the Bible. But what I want to know is what does it mean? What is its intrinsic meaning?

I love this passage, but especially the part that I have emphasized: > **The Heavenly Warrior Defeats the Beast** 11 I saw heaven standing open > and there before me was a white horse, whose rider is called Faithful > and True. With justice he judges and wages war. 12 His eyes are like > blazing fire, and on his head are many crowns. **He has a name written > on him that no one knows but he himself.** 13 He is dressed in a robe > dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God. Revelation 19:11-13 > (NIV) So how can God (Jesus) have a secret identity, as indicated in this scripture? Is there support for this, or anything like it, elsewhere in scripture? I am interested in the Protestant answer to this question, especially also the Messianic Jewish answer, if possible. Although a Catholic answer will (probably) not be accepted, I would still appreciate a good answer.

The KJV translators almost always translated the Tetragrammaton into English as "LORD" (all capital letters). For example, in Deut. 6:4: But, on the rare occasion—**extremely** rare—they chose instead to write "IEHOVAH" instead of "LORD." Now, this question is NOT about the pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton. The question is, why did the KJV translators seemingly break their rule of writing "LORD" for the Tetragrammaton in these instances? For example, in Exo. 6:3: in Psa. 83:18: in Isa. 12:2: in Isa. 26:4:

Jehovah's Witnesses believe God is the Father whose name is the Hebrew YHVH, the Tetragrammaton, which was the name the Apostles called on to be saved. However, after calling on the name to be saved, the New Testament states that those who believe and accept what has been done to restore the relationship between God and man should acknowledge they are sons of God by calling the Father "Abba:" >For you did not receive the spirit of slavery to fall back into fear, but you have received the Spirit of adoption as sons, by whom we cry, “Abba! Father!” (Romans 8:15) [ESV] >And because you are sons, God has sent the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, crying, “Abba! Father!” (Galatians 4:6) The term "Abba" is from the Aramaic אַבָּא vocative form, originally a term of endearment, later used as a title and personal name; rarely used in reference to God which is transliterated into Greek as ἀββα. It was taken over by Greek speaking Christians as a liturgical formula.1 The use of "Abba" by the Greek speaking Christians is not surprising given Paul's instruction. Historically what is described with the name, is similar to animal sacrifice which those who rejected God's act of salvation believe is still necessary but the Apostles and all who believe understand are no longer required. In other words, where the Jewish people were told to call on the name of YHVH to be saved and to call on "the Father" (eg. in prayer) **before** the death and resurrection of Jesus, and **still do**, those who had been saved were to use "Abba." Moreover, "Abba" is also how Jesus addressed His Father in the garden of Gethsemane: >And he said, “Abba, Father, all things are possible for you. Remove this cup from me. Yet not what I will, but what you will.” (Mark 14:36) How do Jehovah's Witnesses explain the requirement to use the name which was and still is associated with the Old Testament and its sacrificial system and not address God the Father in the way which acknowledges the current condition? In other words, since Paul says "Abba" is how someone who has been saved because the OT law has been fulfilled and is a child of God should address God the Father, how is instructing someone to use the Jewish name "Jehovah" consistent with the message of salvation Paul preached in the New Testament? ---- 1. Fredrick William Danker, *A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature*, The University Chicago Press, 2000, p. 1