The second commandment in English reads (King James Version) > Thou shalt have no other gods before me. but in German it reads (Luther Bible) > Du sollst keine anderen Götter neben mir haben. This in translation means "You shall not have other Gods *beside / next to* me." The English version could be interpreted to permit other gods if they are not before but after / below God. I presume that the German text is more precise in this regard?

If you want to be confused and stay confused, you've come to the right place. It seems that practically all the answers on any topic are answered as follows: Question- Should you come to a complete stop at a red light? Answer - It depends on whether you're translating from Hebrew, Greek, Aramaic, Latin or some other translation e.g. Substitutionary locomotion. Those sound good on paper, but they're just another way to say "I don't know". So if that's the truth, it won't hurt to just say so.

I am currently in the process of understanding various religions and studying them.
While studying the Quran's English translation, I came across this footnote about this verse > 96:5 عَلَّمَ ٱلْإِنسَـٰنَ مَا لَمْ يَعْلَمْ ٥ > > taught humanity what they knew not.[1]   — Dr. Mustafa Khattab, The > Clear Quran > > [1]  Verses 1-5 are known to be the first ever revealed of the Quran. > The Prophet (ﷺ) was retreating at a cave in the outskirts of Mecca > when the angel Gabriel appeared to him, squeezing him tightly and > ordering him to read. Since the Prophet (ﷺ) was unlettered, he > responded, “I cannot read.” Ultimately, Gabriel taught him: “Read in > the Name of your Lord …” Some scholars believe that this encounter is > the fulfilment of Isaiah 29:12, which states, “Then the book will be > given to the one who is illiterate, saying, ‘Read this.’ And he will > say, ‘I cannot read.’” Here's the link to this footnote. I explored Isaiah 29:12 but couldn't understand it much because maybe I could not get the right/clear translation for this verse. Please help me understand Isaiah 29:12. Does it really mean that a holy book will be given by God to someone illiterate in the future? Sorry for any mistakes as this is my first question on this forum! Thanks in advance!

How did medieval Bible commentator [Hugh of Saint-Cher](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hugh_of_Saint-Cher) translate Romans 3:23? That is, particularly, what Latin did he use for "hamartia?" Did he alter the translation from Jerome's Vulgate?

Recently there has been a ban on the use of the word Allah to refer to the Christian God. What are the good alternatives to the word Allah in countries where it is banned? I heard Tuhan is one of them.

I'm looking for an English translation of Martin Luther's notes in his German Bible translation. Or maybe it would be called his preface. My understanding is that he included personal notes before each book in the New Testament. Does anyone know what I am talking about or where I could find it? Thanks.

I have noticed a consistent bias in English translations of the scriptures, both old and new. Whenever the Greek προσκυνέω or the Hebrew וַיִּשְׁתַּ֖חוּ appear (in their various conjugations), if the word is applied to God proper or to "a god," then the word is translated as "worship." However, if the term is applied to your average man then it is translated as the more literal and mundane "to bow down, to prostrate oneself." A great example of this is Exodus 18:7 (NASB) >Then Moses went out to meet his father-in-law, and he bowed down and kissed him; and they asked each other about their welfare, and went into the tent. If you review the Hebrew, the word translated here as "bowed down" is וַיִּשְׁתַּ֙חוּ֙. And if we look at the Greek of this verse in the Septuagint, the word is προσεκύνησεν, the 3rd person singular aorist active indicative conjugation of the aforementioned προσκυνέω. But when these words are applied to God, we see they are translated as "worship." For example, 1 Samuel 15:31 (NASB) >So Samuel went back following Saul, and Saul worshiped the Lord. The Hebrew word here is again וַיִּשְׁתַּ֥חוּ, while the Greek from the Septuagint is again προσεκύνησεν; the exact same as for when Moses "bowed down" to Jethro. As far as I can tell, this distinction is entirely artificial and has been abused by translators to falsely build up the case for the Trinity by selectively translating the Greek word as "worship" when applied to Christ, just as when it is applied to God proper or to "a god," and not translating it in the same manner as when applied to men. For example... Matthew 28:16-17 >**16** But the eleven disciples proceeded to Galilee, to the mountain which Jesus had designated to them. **17** And when they saw Him, they worshiped Him; but some were doubtful. The Greek word translated as "they worshiped" is, of course, προσεκύνησαν. This is nearly identical to the word used when Moses "bowed down" to Jethro - only it is 3rd person plural instead of 3rd person singular. On to my question... While it appears to me that the above practice is an abuse by translators to force their biases upon the unsuspecting reader, I want to know if there is in fact a good, objective reason for this practice. Any references you can provide to substantiate your answer would be much appreciated.

It has came to my attention that there is a great debate on the internet regarding the ingredients of the "Holy anointing oil", with some saying that Kaneh Bosem translates to cannabis. I was rather surprised to find out that this belief is supported by the Ancient Hebrew Research Center. Ancient Hebrew Research Center > The Hebrew phrase qaneh bosem can be defined as “an aromatic resinous reed plant” and is descriptive of the cannabis plant. > Just as the word “cinnamon” is derived from a Semitic origin; it is possible that “cannabis” is also of Semitic origin. > Cannabis was known and used in the Near East at the time of the Hebrew people. **The Guardian** I was shocked to find out that this claim was documented in The Guardian newspaper, which is a British national newspaper. The Guardian > Jesus 'healed using cannabis' **The Times of Israel** The claim is further supported by the Times of Israel. The Times of Israel > Do you know that “cannabis” comes from the Hebrew word “קנבוס” (“KaNaBoS”)? And קנבוס actually comes from the ancient Biblical term, “קנה בשם” (“KaNeH BoSeM”), one of the ingredients of the anointing oil delineated in Exodus 30:23! **Wikipedia** It is only when I came to Wikipedia that I found out that there are opponents to this theory, such as Rabbi Aryeh Kaplan. Wikipedia > Rabbi Aryeh Kaplan notes that "On the basis of cognate pronunciation and Septuagint readings, some identify Keneh bosem with the English and Greek cannabis, the hemp plant. Benet argued that equating Keneh Bosem with sweet cane could be traced to a mistranslation in the Septuagint, which mistook Keneh Bosem, later referred to as "cannabos" in the Talmud, as "kalabos", a common Egyptian marsh cane plant. **Youtube** The claim that Cannabis was one of the ingredients of the "Holy anointing oil" is also made in a youtube video. Kaneh Bosm The Hidden Story of Cannabis in the Old Testament **Question** What do Christians believe Kaneh Bosem translates to?

One of my favorite Bible translations has always been the King James (I suppose because of the medieval feel), but I have always been fascinated by the much longer history of the Catholic Church and I recently was informed that the KJV is not considered a valid translation in Catholic canon. This sparked curiosity on my part I was wondering in what ways the KJV was different from a traditional Catholic translation, and can the differences be chalked up to slightly different translations of ancient Greek? Or was it fundamentally changed to fit a Protestant perspective?

Growing up I was told [Rev. Almeida](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jo%C3%A3o_Ferreira_de_Almeida#Bible_translation) translated the whole Bible directly from Hebrew and Greek and cross-checked with translations in Latin, Spanish, Italian, French, and Dutch. I now know that this is a myth. I have recently read that he did not finish the translation of the Old Testament, did not finish editing the New Testament, did not know Hebrew, possibly did not know Greek either, mostly translated from Spanish and Dutch, his work was extensively revised by a Dutch group, then extensively revised by a British group, did not impress either commission with the quality of his work, and to this day there are missing verses, verses out of order, and frequent unusual grammar. Since this translation is the most numerous and widely read work in the Portuguese language, I believe it is a serious matter. The best source I found on this was a 2007 paper in Portuguese by Herculano Alves: [*A Bíblia de João Ferreira Annes d’Almeida*](https://revistas.ulusofona.pt/index.php/cienciareligioes/article/view/4095) . Herculano's paper is impressive, but it does not cover one aspect: **what percentage of the New Testament with handwritten corrections by Rev. Almeida can be attributed to mostly a word for word translation of the [Reina Valera](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reina_Valera) and the [*Statenvertaling*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Statenvertaling)** ? (or whatever versions he used?) Has this question been already researched? If so, by whom and where?

**Has the Mass ever been translated and said in Sanskrit?** I remember reading some years ago about this possibility in Rome, by some Jesuit scholars, but can not find any sources to affirm that it has been done... As we know, Sanskrit is the sacred language of Hinduism, the language of classical Hindu philosophy, and of historical texts of Buddhism and Jainism. Sanskrit is also considered by many as the oldest language in the world. I believe that this would be a great evangelizing tool in the countries such as India and Tibet (China). Thus my question: **Has the Catholic Mass (in any Rite) ever been translated and said in Sanskrit?**

Why is it not common practice for Biblical translators to also translate characters' names? I found that translating Biblical names into English has added layers of depth to the narratives. Update: I found [this site](https://readagape.com) , which allows you to toggle name definitions on and off. Here are a few examples of my above claim: **Genesis 3:20 - KJV** >"And Human [(Adam)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adam) called his wife's name Life [(Eve)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eve) ; because she was the mother of all living." **Genesis 17:5 - KJV** >"Neither shall thy name anymore be called Exalted Father [(Abram)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abraham) , but thy name shall be Father of Nations [(Abraham)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abraham) ; for a father of many nations have I made thee." **Genesis 32:28 - KJV** >"And he said, Thy name shall be called no more Heel-grabber [(Jacob)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jacob) , but He Who Contends With God [(Israel)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jacob) : for as a prince hast thou power with God and with men, and hast prevailed." **Matthew 16:18 - KJV** >"And I say also unto thee, That thou art Rock [(Peter)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Saint_Peter) , and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it." Which reads even better when paired with **Matthew 7:24-25** >"Therefore whosoever heareth these sayings of mine, and doeth them, I will liken him unto a wise man, which built his house upon a rock: And the rain descended, and the floods came, and the winds blew, and beat upon that house; and it fell not: for it was founded upon a rock."

In his essay "*The Syllabus*" (which refers to the *Syllabus of Errors* attributable to Pope Bl. Pius IX.), St. John Henry Newman writes: The above is taken from pg. 105 of [*Newman's Letter to the Duke of Norfolk*](https://ia904704.us.archive.org/10/items/a678635200newmuoft/a678635200newmuoft.pdf) QUESTION: What does the line in Greek translates into, and which Greek Tragedy is St. John Newman alluding to? Here's the OCR of the Greek text (in Unicode UTF-8): οὔπωε τὰν Διὸς ἁρμονίαν θνατῶν παρεξίασι βουλαί.

Not necessarily 1st century Galilean Aramaic, it can be the Imperial Aramaic used for parts of the book of Daniel, or the Targumic Aramaic used in the interpretive Jewish translations of Scripture. But when does the first publication of a Lord's prayer translation in a distinctively Jewish (as opposed to Syriac) Aramaic dialect date back to, and what is the text? I'm looking for it in Hebrew (square) letters with nikkud/vowel points

Does anyone know where I can find an English translation of a book containing Karl Barth's sermons from 1934 to 1948, [*Fürchte dich nicht! - Predigten aus den Jahren 1934 bis 1948*](https://archive.org/details/frchtedichnichtp0000bart/page/n5/mode/2up) , published in 1949?

John 1:1 says: >"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God." -KJV The Greek says: >Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος How do Unitarians (those that deny a preexisting Messiah) interpret this verse? If there is more than one, please provide an overview of the various interpretations.

I am looking for a **public domain** English translation of all four volumes of Perter Lombard's *The Sentences*---"one of the least read of the world’s great books". I am, however, not sure that such exists. The earliest translation that I have found is by Giulio Silano, which came out roughly fifteen years ago. See, for example, [The Sentences Book 1: The Mystery of the Trinity (Mediaeval Sources in Translation)](https://www.amazon.com/Sentences-Book-Mystery-Mediaeval-Translation/dp/0888442920/ref=d_pd_vtp_vft_none_sccl_2_2/136-3867385-3257915?pd_rd_w=l04Mp&content-id=amzn1.sym.8e065679-52e9-4d16-ae63-fa3d08b93cef&pf_rd_p=8e065679-52e9-4d16-ae63-fa3d08b93cef&pf_rd_r=E88PDH4H8Y2DVGX50FPD&pd_rd_wg=1yey7&pd_rd_r=e702d2dc-a129-473f-986c-8ff314301285&pd_rd_i=0888442920&psc=1) . If this is indeed the earliest such translation, then what I am looking for does not exist. As for Latin, I have found [Petri Lombardi's Libri IV Sententiarum](https://ia800502.us.archive.org/20/items/libriivsententia01pete/libriivsententia01pete.pdf) , but it does not appear to contain all four books. QUESTION: Does anyone know of a public domain English translation of all four volumes of Peter Lombard's, "The Sentences"? Or, is anyone reasonably certain that none exist? If no such English translation exists, is there a complete Latin translation to be found that was published in the last two hundred years or so? (i.e., not [Liber IV sententiarum (Four Books of Sentences)](https://archive.org/details/lewis_e_170/page/n5/mode/2up))

Bible translations like the NKJV and the ESV are meant to be descendants of the KJV Bible. Why then are these written in American English as opposed to traditional British English?

Over a period of time, one comes across versions of the Lord's Prayer each worded in a unique manner. There appears to be slight inconsistency among the texts of the Prayer one is taught in Catechism, that said during the Holy Mass and the Prayer said at home or in private. Of course, the Lord said " Pray like this" when he taught the disciples to pray (Mtt 6:9-13). A little bit of inconsistency in the Prayers said during various occasions, and by people belonging to different cultures is therefore, understandable. For instance: > Our Father in heaven Vs Abba Father in heaven > Hallowed be they name Vs Holy be your name. > Give us today our daily bread Vs Give us this day our daily bread > Forgive us our sins Vs Forgive us our trespasses > As we forgive those who sin against us Vs As we have forgiven those who sin against us > Bring us not into temptation Vs Do not let us fall into temptation > Deliver from evil Vs Deliver us from the evil one Would it not, however, be beautiful if the faithful all across the world recited the Lord's Prayer following one single unified text ? My question therefore is: Did the Catholic Church ever prescribe a single unified text of the Lord's Prayer to be said on all occasions by all the faithful ?

I was poking around the Internet to see if there are any LDS-sanctioned modern translations of the Book of Mormon in English, and it seems there are not. (Although there's an unofficial one, *A Plain English Reference to the Book of Mormon* by Timothy B. Wilson.) However from another question on here I saw that the book of Mormon is still being translated into foreign languages. My question is, how is that the case? It was my understanding that Mormons say Joseph Smith returned the golden plates to the angel, so how are new translations made? From the English? And if foreign translations can be made from the English, why not a NIV-style English translation from the English?