The word 'Saviour' (σωτήρ, *soter*) is used twenty-four times in the Greek New Testament scriptures. Eight times, this refers to 'God'. Sixteen times it refers to 'Jesus', 'Christ', 'Jesus Christ', 'Lord Jesus Christ', and 'The Son'. One notable time, the wording used is 'the great God and Saviour of us, Jesus Christ', Titus 2:13, and here I am quoting the original, literal, in which the Greek idiom known as 'Sharp's rule' should be noted. No other person is called a 'saviour' in the Greek New Testament. Moses is referred to as a 'deliverer', the proper translation for λυτρωτῆς, *lutrotes*, in Acts 7:35, in regard to a national, not a spiritual, deliverance: and Noah is said to have 'saved' his household (from a flood, not a spiritual salvation) in Hebrews 11:7 when God was the Saviour by his warning Noah of the future flood. The salvation of one's own soul ; the salvation from one's own, personal sins; the salvation of oneself in regard to the sin which entered into the world and humanity in general; the salvation of one's body in resurrection: all are the province, solely, of 'God our Saviour' and of 'the God and Saviour of us, Jesus Christ.' In the light of this evidence, why do some suggest that Jesus Christ is not 'God' when the evidence appears to be, very substantially, in favour of the opposite conclusion? The list of eight references to 'God our Saviour': Lk 1:47, 1 Ti 1:1, 2:3, 4:10, Titus 1:3, 2:10, 3:4, Jude 25. The list of sixteen references to Christ as Saviour: Lk 2:11, Jn 4:42, Ac 5:31, 13:23, Eph 5:23, Phil 3:20, 2 Ti 1:10, Titus 1:4, 2:13, 3:6, 2 Pe 1:1, 1:11, 2:20, 3:2, 3:18, 1 Jo 4:14. -------------------------------------- All references and quotations relate to the TR Greek text and to the KJV translation of that text.

### This question is addressed to Trinitarians If we have God the Father, God the Holy Spirit, and God the Son (God the Trinity sharing the same essence and all of them being God), **why does the Bible insist that it is ONLY the Will of the Father that matters and should be done**? Not the will of the Trinity, not the will of the Son, nor of the Holy Spirit; and certainly not the will of "God" in the Triune sense? **Why is the will of *only one of the three* singled out as having preeminence over the other two yet they are equal? Why do the other two subject their wills to the one?** ### Bible references **On the primacy of the Father's will** - Matthew 7:21 – “Not everyone who says to Me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, **but the one who does the will of My Father who is in heaven.”** - Matthew 12:50 – “**For whoever does the will of My Father in heaven is My brother and sister and mother**.” - Ephesians 6:6 – “Not by way of eye-service, as people-pleasers, but as bondservants of Christ, **doing the will of God from the heart**.” **Jesus Does the Will of the Father** - John 4:34 – “Jesus said to them, ‘**My food is to do the will of Him who sent Me and to accomplish His work**.’” - John 5:30 – “I can do nothing on My own. As I hear, I judge, and My judgment is just, **because I seek not My own will but the will of Him who sent Me**.” - John 6:38-40 – “**For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will but the will of Him who sent Me**. And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that I should lose nothing of all that He has given Me, but raise it up on the last day.” **In Heaven, Only the Will of the Father Is Done** - Matthew 6:10 – “Your kingdom come, **Your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven**.” - Psalm 103:20-21 – “Bless the Lord, O you His angels, you mighty ones who do His word, obeying the voice of His word! **Bless the Lord, all His hosts, His ministers, who do His will**!”

Does it mean to love others? Does it mean to pray? Does it mean reading the Bible? What are more ways I can love Him?

1 Corinthians 2:11 > For who among men knows the thoughts of man except his own spirit > within him? **So too, no one knows the thoughts of God except the Spirit > of God.** Does the Father have the Holy Spirit within him, and if he does, is it his very own spirit or a separate divine person within him? _This is a question to get an understanding of doctrine comparing Trinitarian, Binitarian and Unitarian perspectives._

And also what objections are there to the position that ALL of Creation is the Body of God the Father? I do not believe that this is the same as pantheism which says the physical universe is god. The distinction in this position is God the Father is Spirit & Body. Just like Man is both spirit & body. (Man consists of both body & soul.) A dead body is not a man since there is no spirit. Similarly one can't speak of the Body of the Father as God anymore than a dead cadaver is a man. Everything that exists both spiritual & physical exist in God. So we think of ALL of Creation as the Body of God the Father. --- 1. Can one say that God the Father has Spirit & Body? 2. What are the objections to the position that ALL of creation is the Body of God the Father?

Jesus' most important commandment is the following: >Jesus answered him, *“The first of all the commandments is: ‘Hear, O Israel, YHWH our Elohim, YHWH is 1. And you shall love YHWH your Elohim with all your heart, with all your soul, with all your mind, and with all your strength.’ This is the first commandment."* Those who reject the triune theory do so because we interpret the scriptures to show a clear distinction between the person of YHWH (the 1 God), and His only begotten, the Son of God. The most well known words of Jesus are recorded in John 3:16. This is only 1 simple example of Jesus making a distinction between himself and God. John 3:16 >For **God** so loved the world that **He** gave ***His** only begotten Son*, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have everlasting life. Throughout scripture this theme holds very consistent and can be shown with countless verses. There are too many to list them all. ***What are the BEST scriptures to support the interpretation that Jesus is not the same person as God (YHWH), but rather the Son of God and a completely separate person?*** -- Note: In the context of this question, verses that make a distinction between YHWH and Jesus would be greater support than verses that make a distinction between the Father and Jesus (even though we know the Father is YHWH according to this perspective).

**Premise** 1Cor 8:6 KJV > But to us there is but one **God, the Father**, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him. 1Tim 1:17 >Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, **the only God**, be honor and glory forever and ever. Amen. Romans 15:6 NASB >so that with one accord you may with one voice glorify the **God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ**. Ephesians 4:6 KJV >One **God and Father** of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all. 2 Timothy 1:3 >I thank **God**, whom I serve with a pure conscience, **as my forefathers did**, as without ceasing I remember you in my prayers night and day, **Question** ***Who do Trinitarians understand Paul's God to be?***

Many people argue that we only created God and religion to give our lives meaning, and that is why we worship God and other gods. However, we have to take into consideration that humans tend to worship everything, and it is in our nature, which is evidence that God exists. (If we are merely evolved from inanimate matter with no aspect of Design involved, why would we possess this big sense of spirituality, worship and believing in gods, when in reality believing in gods that do not exist does not matter and does not help us survive?) How can we rebut the argument that we only worship God because we want meaning in our lives and to give an explanation for our existence?

**Accordring to Trinitarians who is this person with a form, sitting on His throne?** Daniel 7:9-27 New King James Version Vision of the Ancient of Days > 9 “I watched till thrones were put in place, **And the Ancient of Days > was seated**; His garment was white as snow, And the hair of His head > was like pure wool. His throne was a fiery flame, Its wheels a burning > fire; 10 A fiery stream issued And came forth from before Him. A > thousand thousands ministered to Him; Ten thousand times ten thousand > stood before Him. The court was seated, And the books were opened. > > 11 “I watched then because of the sound of the pompous words which the > horn was speaking; I watched till the beast was slain, and its body > destroyed and given to the burning flame. 12 As for the rest of the > beasts, they had their dominion taken away, yet their lives were > prolonged for a season and a time. > > 13 “I was watching in the night visions, And behold, One like the Son > of Man, Coming with the clouds of heaven! He came to the Ancient of > Days, And they brought Him near before Him. 14 Then to Him was given > dominion and glory and a kingdom, That all peoples, nations, and > languages should serve Him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion, > Which shall not pass away, And His kingdom the one Which shall not be > destroyed.

[Many Christians](https://chicagobible.org/why-was-god-never-called-father-in-the-old-testament-he-is-called-father-in-the-new-testament-kenya/) believe that Jesus' teaching about the Fatherhood of God was new and even revolutionary. Previously, Jews thought of God as "Lord" but not as Father. However, we can indeed find evidence in the Hebrew Bible for the fatherhood of God. For example the prophet Nathan, speaking for God of King Solomon, said: > He shall build a house for my name, and I will establish the throne of > his kingdom for ever. 14 I will be his father, and he shall be my son. > (2 Sam. 7:13-14) And Psalm 103:13 says: > As a father pities his children, > so the Lord pities those who fear him. So was Jesus' teaching of God as our Father already well known to his Jewish audience? Were the OT references to God's parenthood common knowledge, or was Jesus' teaching a major new revelation of God's nature?

**John 5:18 NASB95** For this reason therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, **but also was calling God His own Father**, making Himself equal with God. **Isaiah 64:8 NASB95** But now, O Lord, **You are our Father**, We are the clay, and You our potter; And all of us are the work of Your hand. Other verses that show God as Father in the OT are: Deut. 32:6, Psalm 82:6, 89:26, Isaiah 63:16, Jeremiah 3:4, 19, Malachi 1:6, 2:10, etc... If this was a semi-common theme in the OT, why were the Jews so upset when Jesus called God Father?

**Why is there not a Liturgical Feast in honour of the Father within the Catholic Church?** The Catholic Church is trinitarian in thought and belief. Yet She has no liturgical celebration in honour of the Father. We pray the Our Father at Mass every day. > It’s sad that in the whole liturgical year there isn’t a feast dedicated to the Father, that in the whole Missal there isn’t even a votive Mass in His honour. Come to think of it, it’s very strange; there are many feasts dedicated to Jesus the Son; there is a feast of the Holy Spirit; there are many feasts dedicated to Mary... There isn’t a single feast dedicated to the Father, *“source and origin of all divinity”*. We could almost say that the Father, and no longer the Holy Spirit, is “the unknown divinity”. > > It’s true, there is the feast of the Holy Trinity, which, however, is the feast of a mystery, or a dogma and not of a person and, nevertheless, not of a single divine person. Besides, the fact that there is a feast of the Holy Family doesn’t mean the Church may not feel the need to celebrate, even individually, the three persons of the Holy Family. There are even two feasts dedicated to Jesus’ putative father, but there isn’t a single feast dedicated to His real Father. Couldn’t this be the moment to fill this gap? > > Many feasts originated in order to answer the particular needs of an era: the feast of Corpus Domini, for example, was born as a response of faith to the denial of the real presence, made by Berengario of Tours; to the threat of Jansenism, the Church responded with the feast and devotion to the Sacred Heart and no one will ever know how many spiritual graces this devotion produced. Today, the threat strikes the very heart of the Christian faith which is the revelation of God as Father – the “Father of our Lord Jesus Christ”, as St. Paul calls Him – and, therefore, the Trinity itself. It’s not a coincidence that Providence is bringing back to mind, in our days, the mystery of God’s suffering, but because the Holy Spirit knows that this is the remedy needed to heal the contaminated mind of modern man, who has found, in suffering, the stumbling stone which leads him far away from God. > > In the teachings of the Church, feasts have always been a privileged means of allowing a particular mystery or event of the history of salvation to penetrate in the lives of the faithful. The knowledge and familiarity of the Holy Spirit certainly wouldn’t be so strong without the feast of Pentecost. Feasts are a living catechesis and today there is an urgent need for a catechesis on the Father. Besides its catechetic value, a feast dedicated to the Father would also have, like any other feast, the value of *homologesis*, that is of a public and joyful confession of faith. In fact, feasts are the highest and most solemn form of proclaiming one’s faith, because all people participate in it unanimously. Christians would certainly give great joy to the risen Lord if they were able to accomplish this project “ecumenically”, that is, reaching an agreement with all the Churches who accept it in order to celebrate, with one accord, the feast of the Father on the same day. > > While we look forward to this day, we can already celebrate the feast of the Father “in spirit and in truth”, in the intimacy of our hearts, by perhaps promoting little spiritual initiatives whose purpose is to make the Father known more, to honour Him and express all our filial love for Him, in union with Jesus, who always celebrates His Father... In fact, this is already taking place and many people are experiencing the new and extraordinary fervour it gives to faith and to our whole spiritual life. - A feast for the Father By P. Raniero Cantalamessa ofmcap. I am unaware of any Feast of the Father at a local level within the Church. Perhaps one does exist or had existed, but again I am in ignorance on this subject matter. It seems odd to me. Thus my question: **Why is there not a Liturgical Feast in honour of the Father within the Catholic Church?**

Every concept and Truth is from the creative mind of God. This includes what defines a father and a son. By observation, we can know how God defines a father within His design. Some examples of these Truths observable in His own design: - **Every father to ever exist has preceded the begetting of his child.** - **Every son to ever exist must be begotten at a moment in time.** - **A son inherits qualities and responsibilities from his father at a *specific moment in time.*** It appears the triune theory removes all aspects of what is defined as sonship and fatherhood. It also appears that the triune theory adds unique qualities/characteristics to the father/son relationship that are seemingly irrational. No instances of these qualities can be found anywhere in the design of Creation which is all from the imaginative mind of God. Some examples: - **A son never references his father and himself together by using a singular personal pronoun: I, Me, He, Him, Himself. *(Mark 12:26-27, Matt 19:4, Job 38:1, Isaiah 44:24)* Rather the plural pronouns "we" and "us" are exclusively used.** - **A third party never references both a father and his son as 1 non-personified being while also using singular personified pronouns: He, Him, His, Himself. *(Exodus 3:6, Gen 5:27, Isaiah 40:22, Isaiah 42:5, Deut 32:6 )* Rather, "they", "them", "theirs" are used.** - **A son cannot beget himself or be begotten by a non personified essence/nature which is a necessary Trinitarian interpretation of the following verse:** *Psalm 2:6 Yet have I set my king upon my holy hill of Zion. 7 I will declare the decree: YHWH hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I **begotten** thee* **Question(s)** - Please answer all to be considered for the bounty. According to Trinitarians: 1. **In what way(s) is God the Father a father to God the Son?** 2. **In what way(s) is God the Son a son of God the Father?** 3. **If your answer is simply *"the risen Jesus is subordinate to his Father and of the same nature"*, please explain how this makes him more of a son than the angels.** 4. **Of the relational aspects in your answer, which of these overlap with the concept of fatherhood and sonship within the design of nature and more specifically mankind?** 1 John >22 Who is a liar but he who denies that Jesus is the Christ? He is antichrist who denies the Father and the Son.

If the Father is the only God who is True, than what type of godhood is the 2nd person of the trinity? John 17:3 (Jesus speaking to his God and Father) > And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the ***only true God***, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent.

The Trinity is 3 persons sharing 1 essence. ***They*** share ***It***. (Where does the "He", "Him", "Me", "My" come from?) Jesus uses plural personified pronouns when referencing himself and his Father. John 14:23 King James Version > 23 Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and ***WE*** will come unto him, and make ***OUR*** abode with him. - ***Therefore, if we are to follow our Master, should Trinitarians use plural personified pronouns to reference multiple persons of the Trinity? For example: "I love God. They are my salvation."*** - ***If not, please explain why we use singular personified pronouns when speaking of 3 persons? If the deity is not a person, why not use singular non personified pronouns?***

**The Old Testament identifies YHWH as "our Father", the Creator.** Is this ***"Father"***- the first person of the Trinity, God the Father? **Is he YHWH, the God of Israel?** Malachi 2:10 >Have we not all ***one Father***? Has not ***one God*** created us? Why do we deal treacherously with one another By profaning the covenant of the fathers? Isaiah 64:8 >But now, O **YHWH**, You are our ***Father***; We are the clay, and You our potter; And all we are the work of Your hand. Isaiah 63:16 >Doubtless You are our ***Father***, Though Abraham was ignorant of us, And Israel does not acknowledge us. **You, O *YHWH*, are our *Father***; Our Redeemer from Everlasting is Your name. Deuteronomy 32:6 >Do you thus deal with **YHWH**, O foolish and unwise people? Is He not your ***Father***, who bought you? Has He not made you and established you? John 8:41 >Then they said to Him, “We were not born of fornication; ***we have one Father—God***.” Jesus declares his Father to be the same God as the Jews, YHWH. John 8:54 >Jesus answered, “If I honor Myself, My honor is nothing. It is ***My Father*** who honors Me, of whom you say that **He is your God**." Paul appears to feel the same way. 2 Timothy 1:3 >I thank God, whom I serve with a pure conscience, **as my forefathers did**, as without ceasing I remember you in my prayers night and day, Ephesians 4:6 >one God and **Father** of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.

Jehovah's Witnesses believe God is the Father whose name is the Hebrew YHVH, the Tetragrammaton, which was the name the Apostles called on to be saved. However, after calling on the name to be saved, the New Testament states that those who believe and accept what has been done to restore the relationship between God and man should acknowledge they are sons of God by calling the Father "Abba:" >For you did not receive the spirit of slavery to fall back into fear, but you have received the Spirit of adoption as sons, by whom we cry, “Abba! Father!” (Romans 8:15) [ESV] >And because you are sons, God has sent the Spirit of his Son into our hearts, crying, “Abba! Father!” (Galatians 4:6) The term "Abba" is from the Aramaic אַבָּא vocative form, originally a term of endearment, later used as a title and personal name; rarely used in reference to God which is transliterated into Greek as ἀββα. It was taken over by Greek speaking Christians as a liturgical formula.1 The use of "Abba" by the Greek speaking Christians is not surprising given Paul's instruction. Historically what is described with the name, is similar to animal sacrifice which those who rejected God's act of salvation believe is still necessary but the Apostles and all who believe understand are no longer required. In other words, where the Jewish people were told to call on the name of YHVH to be saved and to call on "the Father" (eg. in prayer) **before** the death and resurrection of Jesus, and **still do**, those who had been saved were to use "Abba." Moreover, "Abba" is also how Jesus addressed His Father in the garden of Gethsemane: >And he said, “Abba, Father, all things are possible for you. Remove this cup from me. Yet not what I will, but what you will.” (Mark 14:36) How do Jehovah's Witnesses explain the requirement to use the name which was and still is associated with the Old Testament and its sacrificial system and not address God the Father in the way which acknowledges the current condition? In other words, since Paul says "Abba" is how someone who has been saved because the OT law has been fulfilled and is a child of God should address God the Father, how is instructing someone to use the Jewish name "Jehovah" consistent with the message of salvation Paul preached in the New Testament? ---- 1. Fredrick William Danker, *A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature*, The University Chicago Press, 2000, p. 1

> No man hath seen God at any time: the only begotten Son who is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (John 1:18) QUESTION: **Is there anything in Catholic doctrine which prohibits or restricts displaying an image in the "likeness" of God the Father?** *Remark:* I ask, because I seem to be coming across more and more such images. Yet, I thought that such was not permissible. Consider, for example, the Name of God for the Israelites (abbrev., *The Tetragrammaton*), then replaced by LORD (in smallcaps). Finally, somewhat recently, I thought that the Catholic Church had forbidden the pronunciation of the HOLY NAME alluded to, thus producing a change to some of the Catholic hymns to reflect this.

>**Feminist Philosophy of Religion:** Feminist philosophy of religion is a recent development within Western philosophy that poses feminist questions about religious texts, traditions, and practices, often with the aim of critiquing, redefining, or reconstructing the entire field in light of gender studies... And because it is feminist, it must promote the elimination of gender inequality and take into account the multiplicity of human bodies, desires, and differences that are mapped onto the site of religion. https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/feminist-religion/ >**Christian feminism** is an aspect of feminist theology which seeks to advance and understand the equality of men and women morally, socially, spiritually, and in leadership from a Christian perspective... These theologians believe that God does not discriminate on the basis of biologically determined characteristics, such as sex and race. Their major issues include the ordination of women, male dominance in Christian marriage, recognition of equal spiritual and moral abilities, reproductive rights, and the search for a feminine or gender-transcendent divine... The term ***Christian egalitarianism*** is sometimes preferred by those advocating gender equality and equity among Christians who do not wish to associate themselves with the feminist movement. Women apologists have become more visible in Christian academia. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Feminist_theology#Christianity ***What is the Biblical basis for accepting Feminist Theology with regard to the following topic:*** Replacing male pronouns for God with gender-neutral terms: Feminist theology often criticizes the use of male pronouns for God; referring to God as “He,” “Him,” or “Father” degrades the status of women. The alternative is to refer to God only using gender-neutral terms such as the Divine or to balance the offending terms with female equivalents such as She, Her, and Mother. **Linked:** https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/81300/what-is-the-biblical-basis-for-rejecting-feminist-christian-theology-which-says

**Premise** Jesus tells the woman at the well to worship the Father in Spirit and Truth. > 23 But the hour cometh, and now is, when the true worshippers shall worship the Father in spirit and in truth: for the Father seekth such to worship him. 24 God is a Spirit: and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth. - John 4:23-24 (KJV) In this passage we see the only begotten Son of YHWH, once again declaring his God to be the Father (and is a Spirit), who seeks worship as the one true God. Paul makes it clear that there is 1 Spirit. > There is one body, and one Spirit, even as ye are called in one hope of your calling; 5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all. - Eph 4:4 **Question** ***In light of these two New Testament scriptural passages, how do Trinitarians understand who or what the Holy Spirit of God to be?***