Numbers 24:17 says: >*“I see him, but not now; I behold him, but not near. A star shall come out of Jacob, and a scepter shall rise out of Israel; he shall crush the skulls of Moab and break down all the sons of Sheth.”* This verse is commonly understood by some Christian traditions to be a Messianic prophecy pointing to Jesus Christ—with the “star” and “scepter” symbolizing His **divine authority** and **kingship**. However, the latter part of the verse includes a violent image: >*“he shall crush the skulls of Moab.”* According to those who believe Jesus is the fulfillment of this prophecy, how did he fulfill this part of the verse? This is because this verse was fulfilled in David who led his armies against the Moabites and conquered them, so how do they reconcile that?

Studying the Bible as Jewish believer and have a hard time seeing Jesus as God. He was my messiah but I always prayed to God the father, so how do I see them as one person! The Shema reads > Shema Israel, ADONAI Eloheinu, ADONAI Echad! This is translated as > "Hear O Israel, the Lord our God, the Lord is one. - Deuteronomy 6:4 How can God be one if Jesus is also God?

The final words of the Book of Haggai are: > The word of the Lord came a second time to Haggai on the twenty-fourth > day of the month, “Speak to Zerub′babel, governor of Judah, saying, I > am about to shake the heavens and the earth, and to overthrow the > throne of kingdoms; I am about to destroy the strength of the kingdoms > of the nations, and overthrow the chariots and their riders; and the > horses and their riders shall go down, every one by the sword of his > fellow. On that day, says the Lord of hosts, I will take you, O > Zerub′babel my servant, the son of She-al′ti-el, says the Lord, and > make you like a signet ring; for I have chosen you, says the Lord of > hosts.” The reference to being chosen as God's "signet ring" at least evokes a sense that the prophet predicted a restoration of royal authority approved by God (see Jeremiah 22:24). Zerubbabel was a descendant of King David and the grandson of one of Judah's last kings. Given his lineage and the powerful words of promise above, is Haggai expressing a messianic hope in Zerubbabel? (Note: I mean this in the sense of the Jewish messiah, who restores the throne of David, not the Christian sense, in which the messiah dies for the sins of mankind.) Related questions: whether or not this is a messianic prophecy, why does it seem it was not fulfilled. Were there events in Zerubbabel's time that fulfilled the prophecy? In what sense did he become God's "signet ring?"

### Introduction Ezekiel 44-46 relates a prophecy about a restored Jerusalem with a temple which is quite different in dimensions (it's gigantic) from either the 1st or 2nd Temples. The Israelites are following the laws and regulations of God: > A new heart I will give you, and a new spirit I will put within you, and I will remove from your body the heart of stone and give you a heart of flesh. I will put my spirit within you and make you follow my statutes and be careful to observe my ordinances (Ezekiel 36:26-27) The people are ruled by a prince who is of the line of David: > I will set up over them one shepherd, my servant David, and he shall feed them; he shall feed them and be their shepherd. And I the Lord will be their God, and my servant David shall be prince among them; I the Lord have spoken. (Ezekiel 34:23-24) The prince provides various offering in the Temple for himself and the people: > “In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month, you shall celebrate the Festival of the Passover, and for seven days unleavened bread shall be eaten. On that day the prince shall provide for himself and all the people of the land a bull for a purification offering. And during the seven days of the festival he shall provide as a burnt offering to the Lord seven bulls and seven rams without blemish, on each of the seven days, and a male goat daily for a purification offering. He shall provide as a grain offering an ephah for each bull, an ephah for each ram, and a hin of oil to each ephah. In the seventh month, on the fifteenth day of the month and for the seven days of the festival, he shall make the same provision for purification offerings, burnt offerings, and grain offerings and for the oil. (Ezekiel 45:18-25) This Davidic prince will also have an inheritance and children to whom he may give to. He is not allowed to take from the people and give to his children: > “Thus says the Lord God: If the prince makes a gift to any of his sons out of his inheritance,[a] it shall belong to his sons; it is their holding by inheritance. But if he makes a gift out of his inheritance to one of his servants, it shall be his to the year of liberty; then it shall revert to the prince; only his sons may keep a gift from his inheritance. The prince shall not take any of the inheritance of the people, thrusting them out of their holding; he shall give his sons their inheritance out of his own holding, so that none of my people shall be dispossessed of their holding.” (Ezekiel 46:16-18) ### Identity? Traditional Jewish interpretation of these passages is that the prince is the promised Messiah. Who do Christian denominations believe this prince is? Do Christians believe this is a prophecy of the future? If so, why are sacrifices occurring in the future?

Daniel 8:11 > It became great, even as great as **the Prince of the host**. And the > regular burnt offering was taken away from him, and the place of his > sanctuary was overthrown. Daniel 8:25 > By his cunning he shall make deceit prosper under his hand, and in his > own mind he shall become great. Without warning he shall destroy many. > And he shall even rise up against **the Prince of princes**, and he shall > be broken—but by no human hand. Daniel 9:25 > Know therefore and understand that from the going out of the word to > restore and build Jerusalem to the coming of **the Messiah, the Prince,** > there shall be seven weeks. Then for sixty-two weeks it shall be built > again with squares and moat, but in a troubled time. Daniel 10:13 > The prince of the kingdom of Persia withstood me twenty-one days, > **but Michael, foremost of the chief princes**, came to help me, for I was left there with the kings of Persia, Daniel 10:21 > "But I will tell you what is inscribed in the book of truth: there is > none who contends by my side against these **except Michael, your > Prince.**" Daniel 12:1 > “At that time **shall arise Michael, the great Prince who has charge of > your people**. And there shall be a time of trouble, such as never has > been since there was a nation till that time. But at that time your > people shall be delivered, everyone whose name shall be found written > in the book." From these six key passages, we learn that the Messiah is the Prince, and that Michael is our Prince. How can this be, and does this imply that we have two princes, or that the Messiah is the incarnation of Michael?

There is an idea in Judaism that there is/was a messiah for every generation. I have heard some people muse that it was Christ in the Garden, and so I float the idea that during the timeline in which a Messiah was needed, is it possible that Christ has come before, either as: - Just an observer. - A messiah not realized. - A messiah who failed his initial goal. And by "Possible" I mean, does the Catholic Catechism explicitly or implicitly (but apodictically) rules these ideas out as blasphemous or heretical?

Christians believe that Jesus, the Messiah, is God. My question is: What is the biblical basis in the messianic prophecies and other passages in the Old Testament for the belief that the Messiah must be God? I have read this: "https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/7531/why-does-the-messiah-have-to-be-god " But I'm looking for the biblical basis in the OT of the belief that Jesus must be God.

As Christians, we can look at New Testament passages and conclude the Jews of the New Testament era _were_ expecting the Messiah. What I am looking for in this question is: What evidence is there _outside_ the New Testament that the Jews of the NT era were expecting "very soon" the coming of the Messiah. And what understanding did they have of the type of person the Messiah would be and of the type of work he would accomplish? Did the Jews think the Messiah was coming _soon_ and _what type of work_ did they think would he do? Please show your sources. Thanks.

What is the original explanation Christian Scholars gave for these Jewish prophecies not being fulfilled? > A. Build the Third Temple (Ezekiel 37:26-28). > > B. Gather all Jews back to the Land of Israel (Isaiah 43:5-6). > > C. Usher in an era of world peace, and end all hatred, oppression, > suffering and disease. As it says: "Nation shall not lift up sword > against nation, neither shall man learn war anymore." (Isaiah 2:4) > > D. Spread universal knowledge of the God of Israel, which will unite > humanity as one. As it says: "God will be King over all the world—on > that day, God will be One and His Name will be One" (Zechariah 14:9). [cite](https://www.simpletoremember.com/articles/a/jewsandjesus/#1)

The word meshiach just means anointed one. So what indication is there that Daniel 9 is about the Messiah? Further reading would be appreciated, thanks!

Jesus is the Messiah. From my understanding of scripture, the Messiah was promised to the Jews. If the Jews had accepted him as such - (a hypothetical) - was the Messiah prophesied to die for the sins of ONLY the Jews? If Jesus was sent only to the Jews -(AND HE ALWAYS DOES THE WILL OF THE FATHER) - when was the mission changed by the father (to turn it into a global mission of dying the the sins of all humanity)? Or did Jesus change it by himself?

According to the Old Testament, the messiah would be a direct linage of David (Isaiah 11:1, Jeremiah 23:5, Jeremiah 33:15, 2 Samuel 7:12-13), but according to the New Testament Christ has no earthly biological father, which poses a problem, since linage we carried through the father (Numbers 1:18), so my question being if Christ was the messiah, how could he be when the messiah was from the direct linage of David? And Christ did not have a direct male linage

Struggling with this question regarding Jesus as a messiah given Jewish prophecy. With regards to formatting of this post, I recently had a stroke and so have to use speech to text; I mean no disrespect. I should also add that I'm asking a sincere question not trying to be inflammatory and definitely not trying to be disrespectful of anyone's beliefs. I struggle with accepting Jesus as the messiah given Jewish prophecy/law. So for example: Isaiah 53 speaks of the Messiah coming as a suffering servant, One who is led as a lamb to the slaughter and who takes our sorrows, infirmities, and punishment on Himself. In this particular case for example no one can fulfill my obligations under Jewish law; facetious as it may sound no one can honor the commandments on my behalf or eat kosher on my behalf these are my obligations so I do not understand the Christian belief that through Jesus I am saved. He cannot my sins and my responsibilities for atonement onto himself per Jewish law. Second, the Talmud as well as historical documents recognize two messiahs: one messiah being the son of Joseph and two Davidic messiahs. From my reading of the historic documents Jesus clearly meets the criteria of the messiah son of Joseph while does not necessarily meet by Jewish standards the criteria of the Davidic messiah. Why can we not accept Jesus as the messiah ben joseph? Third, I don't understand how the current Christian practice doesn't violate the Jewish prohibition against idolatry or the 1st commandment. Fourth, is it not sufficient for me to consider Jesus a rabbi? Thank you in advance for your help and insight.

Sometimes as christians when we are talking to the Jews, we tell them the Old Testament refers to the coming of **Jesus Christ**. It's like we are forcing our beliefs unto them by using references from the Old Testament and adding Jesus Christ there. How can you prove or is it possible to prove to a Jew from a book (New Testament) that they already reject that indeed Jesus is the awaited Messiah? Without the New Testament, I think it's impossible to prove that Jesus is the long awaited Messiah. It's like a Muslim telling us that Mohammad is the comforter by using the Qur'an. While we already know that it's the Holy Spirit.

One poster ask me the above question. Does anyone have a scriptural answer? I have one and will post it soon.

Asaph, living in the time of David, was one of the ten elders of Jerusalem and a prophet [1 Chronicles 15:19). He is attributed with several Psalms, including 50 and 74. He speaks of the Day of Judgment, the arrival of the Messiah (Mashiach), and the coming of the Messianic Age. >__Psalm 50:15__: Call to me on the day of distress and I will free you, and you will honor me. > >__Psalm 74:19-21__: Do not give the soul of your Turtledove to a nation [of idolaters]; do not forget the nation of the poor forever. Look to the Covenant, for the dark places of the earth are filled with dens of violence. Let not the downtrodden one turn back in disgrace; the poor and needy will praise your name. If Jesus represents the coming of the Messiah, does this not mean we are in the Messianic Age? However, there is also the Second Coming. Is this a second Messianic Age, a continuation of the first (with the Incarnation), or does Jesus's appearance "not count" as an ushering in of the Messianic Age? To my knowledge, there is little to no evidence from the Hebrew Bible (essentially the Old Testament) on what the Messianic Age would look like in human terms, but it seems clear those following Jesus in his ministries were "walking with God" as other prophets, such as Isaiah, suggeat as part of the Messianic Age.

I have attached an image. This week I traveled to Meteora, Greece to visit the Great Monastery. I found a text there quoting famous Greek persons from ancient times (BC/BCE) writing about a messiah with Christian attributes. I searched for sources for these quotes but could not find any. Are these quotes real? Are there sources? If these are real, why did the Greek New Testament never quote them?

Recently, I have spent some time trying to better understand the Messianic prophecy given in Dan. 9:24-27, which begins with ``Seventy weeks are decreed .... It seems that many English translations begin 9:24 as such, albeit the Hebrew "shavuim", which I understand is given in the Hebrew test, means *sevens*. Based on what Daniel was thinking about when the angel Gabriel appeared to him, it is clear enough that the prophecy pertains to seventy sevens (or 490) years, the last seven of which still seems to be in the future. However, it has been interpreted that the Messiah must have come (before the completion of the first sixty-nine sevens of years) AND must have been "cut off" AFTER the completion of those years. Furthermore, the beginning of those seventy sevens of years must have occurred ``from the utterance of the word that Jerusalem was to be rebuilt ..." Now, chronology from that time is not a clear as we would like to have it, but it does seem to be the case that there are four possibilities for the decree that the prophecy refers to; and in particular, when the countdown of seventy sevens began---The very latest being the decree of Artaxerxes to Nehemiah to rebuild the walls around Jerusalem in 444 B.C. Thus, at the very latest, the countdown of the seventy sevens of years began no later than this date. Now, **WHAT LENGTH OF A YEAR IS LIKELY BEING ALLUDED TO?** If we take the year to be a solar year, then -444 + 483 = 39; and so, simply speaking, the Messiah must have been cut off (killed) around 39 A.D., or later---which seems to be too late. And if we use the dates of the other three possibilities (that I am not listing here)---the Messiah would then have had to have been born much too early, since according to Daniel's prophecy, He had to have been on earth before the expiration of the sixty-nine sevens. This, in some cases, would have placed His birth in near the second century B.C. QUESTION: Hence, with the thought that the Jewish calendar neither is, nor was, a solar calendar---is it possible that the elapse of 483 years prior to the Messiah being cut off refers to "years" on the order of 360 days? I ask, because roughly speaking, this would have the Messiah being cut off in or after the early 30s A.D. which agrees more closely with current calculations as to the year in which Jesus Christ was crucified. Can someone add light to (or correct) these thoughts on calculating a lower bound for when "the Anointed One" had to have been cut off according to Daniel's prophecy? Thank you.

The Protoevangelium, which can be found in Genesis 3:15, holds significant value in Christian theology as it serves as God's initial proclamation and a prophetic utterance. The concept of Redemption in its early stages is thought to cover important elements of the Plan of Salvation, such as the understanding of election and its scope. By examining Protoevangelium, we can better understand the initial notions and beliefs linked with the election and its significance in God's plan of salvation. The Scripture verse provides a key starting point to comprehend the all-encompassing concept of election and its relation to the coming of the Messiah in the scheme of salvation. **Text:** > "I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your offspring and her offspring; he shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise his heel.” (ESV)

In an answer given here: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/96437/on-inferring-that-the-redeemer-will-spring-from-the-race-of-shem , Paul Chernoch makes the very interesting observation: >Going through the ESV, I checked every verse with the construction "God of X". When X is the name of the person, these are the only names ever used: >- Shem >- Abraham >- Isaac >- Jacob >- Israel >- David >- Elijah >- Hezekiah >- Shadrach, Meshech and Abednego >- Daniel >The last three are references made by foreign kings, with Hezekiah being mocked and the remaining ones being honored, but this honor of being named in a "God of X" construction was not given by a prophet. Even so, Hezekiah was in Jesus' genealogy. >This leaves Elijah alone as not being in the line of the savior. He is the exception that proves the rule: a person being honored by being named in the phrase "God of X" is being granted a title of being an ancestor of the messiah. In Elijah's case, as far as we know, he was childless (the Bible being silent on this), so there would be no confusion. However, Elijah is a type of Christ, as he raised people from the dead. Hence, the conjecture here seems to be (with the explained exception of Elijah): that the phrase "God of X" is used in the Bible, it necessarily implies that "The God of X will be the Son of X." For example, see the fourth item in the list given in https://www.newtestamentchristians.com/bible-study-resources/351-old-testament-prophecies-fulfilled-in-jesus-christ/ ("The God of Shem will be the Son of Shem") I would like to know if anyone can think of a counterexample to Paul Chernoch's observation. More specifically--- QUESTION: Can anyone think of (with the noted exception of the prophet Elijah) an instance where the phrase "God of X" is used and it *does not* imply that "The God of X will be the Son of X"? (Perhaps in some bibles, the phrase "X's God" (or something like it) might be used in certain places.) Thank you.