It was mentioned in Exodus that God has granted Moses abilities such as turning his staff into a snake and turning the water of the Nile into blood in order to make the people believe he was sent by God. Why had God not by himself saved the Israelites from slavery? Why did he not talk to them? “But I will harden Pharaoh’s heart, and though I multiply my signs and wonders in Egypt,” why did God harden pharaohs heart and torment the Israelites more?

In Exodus, God commands Moses to strike a rock, and promises to make water flow in the desert for the people. > Behold, I will stand before you there on the rock at Horeb, and you > shall strike the rock, and water shall come out of it, and the people > will drink.” And Moses did so, in the sight of the elders of Israel. > (Exodus 17:6 ESV) Later on, God tells Moses to speak to a rock, promising to make water flow in the desert again. However, Moses strikes the rock again instead of speaking to it. Because of just this one thing, God tells Moses that he will no longer be permitted bring the people into the Promised Land. > “Take the staff, and assemble the congregation, you and Aaron your > brother, and **tell the rock before their eyes to yield its water**. > So you shall bring water out of the rock for them and give drink to > the congregation and their cattle.” 9 And Moses took the staff from > before the Lord, as he commanded him. 10 Then Moses and Aaron gathered > the assembly together before the rock, and he said to them, “Hear now, > you rebels: shall we bring water for you out of this rock?” 11 And > Moses lifted up his hand and **struck the rock** with his staff twice, > and water came out abundantly, and the congregation drank, and their > livestock. 12 And the Lord said to Moses and Aaron, “Because you did > not believe in me, to uphold me as holy in the eyes of the people of > Israel, therefore **you shall not bring this assembly into the land > that I have given them**.” (Numbers 20:8-12 ESV, emphasis added) Why was the punishment so harsh for what seems like a small infraction? Was there something greater or more symbolic going on here?

I've heard a lot of religious chatter concerning what exact "sea" was parted by God to allow Moses and the Israelites to cross out of Egypt. Seems productions by the History Channel and other such sources have made statements about it but they also talked about the Mayan end of the world ideas. I know my bible says "Red Sea" but I've heard that could be a mistranslation. I was just wondering if there was any solid evidence to support either location? Such as archaeological findings or other sources. > "18 So God led the people around by way of the wilderness of the Red > Sea." -Exodus 13:18

In [the narrative in which Moses parts the Red Sea](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parting_of_the_Red_Sea) , the Jews are fleeing the pursuing Egyptians, and are also able to successfully traverse the bottom of the sea. In [popular depictions](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Parting_of_the_Red_Sea) , the bottom of the sea is flat and sandy. However, modern bathymetric data shows that the floor of the Red Sea is [actually quite rugged](https://www.researchgate.net/publication/351081054/figure/fig5/AS:1015991567925248@1619242674066/Vertical-gravity-gradient-seismicity-and-bathymetry-of-the-Red-Sea-Rift-a-The-vertical_Q640.jpg) . Indeed, many areas in the Red Sea are famed as diving areas due to the rocky terrain which supports various [Cnidarians](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cnidaria) likely further limiting the availability of passable routes. Given these constraints, have modern Abrahamic historians done any research into routes across the Red Sea that might have been possible/likely?

Various theories for the location of Mount Sinai have been suggested. One is Jebel Al-Lawz in Saudi Arabia, which was in Moses's time part of Midian. The most popular location is in the south of the peninsula of Sinai at either Jabal Musa or Jabal St Catherine. St Catherine is the higher of these two peaks. What is the evidence for any of these, or any other, mountain peaks?

> Matthew 17:3 Just then there appeared before them Moses and Elijah, > talking with Jesus. > > 4 Peter said to Jesus, “Lord, it is good for us to be here. If you > wish, I will put up three shelters—one for you, one for Moses and one > for Elijah.” I am wondering how Peter recognized that the men were Elijah and Moses? Photographs and portraits didn't exist back in those days. If they did, Peter being a fisherman wouldn't have been to school to see them. And I doubt Moses and Elijah began their conversation by saying - "Hello Jesus, I am Elijah and this is my buddy Moses." So how would Peter know it was Elijah standing there?

A recent [question](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/91738/do-protestant-trinitarians-see-a-completeness-of-the-canon-of-new-testament-scri?noredirect=1) says: > The number three in the bible is significant. … Three persons are associated with the burning bush which Moses saw (Jehovah, Elohim and the Angel of the Lord). [Exodus 3:1–6 (NKJV)](https://www.blueletterbible.org/nkjv/exo/3/1-6/s_53001) describes this incident: > Now Moses was tending the flock of Jethro his father-in-law, the priest of Midian. And he led the flock to the back of the desert, and came to Horeb, the mountain of *God[Elohim]*. > And **the Angel** of the *LORD[YHWH]* appeared to him in a flame of fire from the midst of a bush. So he looked, and behold, the bush was burning with fire, but the bush was not consumed. > Then Moses said, “I will now turn aside and see this great sight, why the bush does not burn.” > > So when **the LORD[YHWH]** saw that he turned aside to look, **God[Elohim]** called to him from the midst of the bush and said, “Moses, Moses!” And he said, “Here I am.” > > Then *He[3MS]* said, “Do not draw near this place. Take your sandals off your feet, for the place where you stand is holy ground.” > Moreover *He[3MS]* said, “I am the *God[Elohim]* of your father—the *God[Elohim]* of Abraham, the *God[Elohim]* of Isaac, and the *God[Elohim]* of Jacob.” And Moses hid his face, for he was afraid to look upon **God[Elohim]**. This contains 5 instances of “*Elohim*” and 1 of “*YHWH*”, which are indirect references. and 2 instances of “*3MS*”, which are a third person masculine singular pronoun. But, there are three different names directly associated with the being(s) in the flame: - 1 **the Angel** - 1 **YHWH** - 2 **Elohim** At one extreme: - “**Elohim**” could be considered simply as a synonym for “**YHWH**” or “**the Angel**”. - The one explicit reference to "**YHWH**" doesn't require his literal presence within the bush. - I.e. the only being in the burning bush was **the Angel**. At the other extreme, there are actually three distinct beings within the burning bush. Do any denominations teach that Moses was talking with three distinct beings?

Except the book of Genesis, I believe that it is possible to make some plausible possibilities on how the books of the Bible were written. Moses wrote about himself, Joshua recorded his conquest of Canaan, some priests or prophets recorded the stories of Gideon, Samson and Ruth. Samuel recorded the events in his lifetime, historians recorded the chronicles of the kings of Israel, prophets wrote down their visions and messages from God, the apostles recorded the life of Jesus, apostles wrote letters and John wrote down his visions. Now, I can't make any hypothesis how Moses could write down the stories which were around 2000 years before him. The Creation story where no one was there to witness is the most astounding account. Genesis contains many complicated contents such as the years of the first men, thousands of names, complicated family trees, detail stories of people and such. How have historians and theologians explained how Moses wrote the Book of Genesis?

Do we have a good idea as to which Pharaoh(s) were around during the time of Moses' life? What internal and external evidence exists to back up those claims? Do any Christian traditions attach any significance to correlating the events of Moses' life to the reign of a specific Pharaoh? The movie *The Prince of Egypt * mentions Ramses as the name of Moses' adoptive mother's son (and the future Pharaoh, both when Moses kills the Egyptian at 40 and when he returns to Egypt when he is 80), but I don't know what the basis is for this claim.

We see God determining the name of some before they are born, like in the case of Jesus (Matthew 1:21) and John the Baptist (Luke 1:13). As for persons chosen for a specific mission, God changes their name, for instance: from Abram to Abraham (Gen 17:5). However, in the case of Moses whose name (literally meaning 'drawn out of water', Exodus 2:10) was chosen by his adoptive mother namely, daughter of the Pharaoh, God continues to call him by his original name (Exodus 3:4). Moses, inspite of having fled as a young man after killing an Egyptian, is sent back at the age of 80 years to the Pharaoh to negotiate for the release of Israel. Carrying on with his Egyptian name would put him in trouble. In spite of such a prospect, we do not see God giving Moses a new name. **What according to scholars, could be the reason for that?**

Obviously Moses was not of the Aaronic Priesthood. Not only was he not a descendant of Aaron, but in fact he was greater than Aaron. God made him Moses’ prophet (Exodus 7:1-2). Was Moses of the order of Melchizedek? Or another order perhaps?

We read in the Epistle of Jude, Verse 9: > But even the archangel Michael, when he was disputing with the devil about the body of Moses, did not himself dare to condemn him for slander but said, “The Lord rebuke you!”. Footnote: Under the verse says that Jude is alluding to the Jewish Testament of Moses. Deut 34: 5-6 that narrates the death of Moses mentions that no one knows where he was buried. My question is: **Did the devil stake a claim to the dead body of Moses, on account of which he was buried in an undisclosed place? Is there any Christian tradition on the subject?**

We read in Ex 4:10-15 (KJV): > And Moses said unto the Lord, O my Lord, I am not eloquent, neither heretofore, nor since thou hast spoken unto thy servant: but I am slow of speech, and of a slow tongue. And the Lord said unto him, Who hath made man's mouth? or who maketh the dumb, or deaf, or the seeing, or the blind? have not I the Lord? Now therefore go, and I will be with thy mouth, and teach thee what thou shalt say.And he said, O my Lord, send, I pray thee, by the hand of him whom thou wilt send. And the anger of the Lord was kindled against Moses, and he said, Is not Aaron the Levite thy brother? I know that he can speak well. And also, behold, he cometh forth to meet thee: and when he seeth thee, he will be glad in his heart. And thou shalt speak unto him, and put words in his mouth: and I will be with thy mouth, and with his mouth, and will teach you what ye shall do. Later we see Aaron always accompanying Moses except on a few occasions like the receipt of the Commandments. God could have easily removed Moses' deficiency on Day One, but ordained that it stays. The fact that Moses was instrumental in the successful redemption of Israel from Egypt proves that his speech deficiency did help him. My question is: What was the value addition made by Moses' speech deficiency to his leadership?

Just watched this glorious video. In watching it, the similarity of the imagery to the description of God's presence as fire and smoke in the wilderness of Exodus and especially on Mt. Sinai was striking. > Mount Sinai was covered with smoke, because the LORD descended on it in fire. The smoke billowed up from it like smoke from a furnace, and the whole mountain trembled violently. (Exodus 19:18, NIV) I'm wondering if any research has been done into whether Ancient Israel, and in particular the author of Exodus would have had knowledge, experience, or read descriptions of volcanoes to have influenced his choice of language.

If Moses was of the tribe of Levi from both parents Exodus 2:1-3, and he never lived in Judah/Judea, in what way was he a Jew/Judean G2453 or "Jewish"? I have an understanding based on crystal clear scripture, and I've been told it's a false interpretation, so I am here looking for actual experts who can offer sound scholarship. Any takers?

We read in Mtt 17:1-3 (NKJV): > Now after six days Jesus took Peter, James, and John his brother, led them up on a high mountain by themselves; and He was transfigured before them. His face shone like the sun, and His clothes became as white as the light. And behold, Moses and Elijah appeared to them, talking with Him. It is implied that God the Father ordained Moses and Elijah to be part of the Transfiguration, with a special purpose. Moses had been dead and buried while Elijah was thought to be alive( Mtt 27:49). The former was associated with Law while the latter was considered as one of the greatest prophets. My question is : Whom and/or what did Moses and Elijah represent in the Transfiguration ?

In Deuteronomy 18:16-18 God said to Moses that he will raise up a prophet like unto Moses from his own people or from among their brethern, Christians believe that that this verse is speaking about the Lord Jesus Christ, but in what ways is Jesus like Moses and what are the similarities between Moses and Jesus? > According to all that thou desiredst of the Lord thy God in Horeb in > the day of the assembly, saying, Let me not hear again the voice of > the Lord my God, neither let me see this great fire any more, that I > die not. > > And the Lord said unto me, They have well spoken that which they have > spoken. > > I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto > thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them > all that I shall command him. Deuteronomy 18:16-18

Are there any church father who rejected Mosaic authorship of the Pentateuch?

I understand that Sadducees were upper-class wealthy men who made up the Jewish aristocracy. Pharisees came from all economic classes but were distinguished by their rigid adherence to behaviour as interpreted from the Torah. They were prominent during the time of Jesus, but when did these two groups first arise, and which came first? Perhaps the Old Testament can shed light on this; for example do they go back to the time of Moses, or perhaps to the time of Zadok the priest? What is the origin of the Pharisees and Sadducees?

In Gen. 26:5: > Because Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my precepts and commandments, and observed my ceremonies and laws. (Douay Rheims) Abraham knew of the obligation to tithe. Noah knew what "clean animals" meant. Abel seemed to know about sacrificing animals (and firstlings). Joseph seemed to know that adultery was a grievous sin. and so forth... What were these precepts, commandments, ceremonies, and laws alluded to in Gen 26:5?? Were they written down? Are they represented in the *natural law*?