I think everyone knows that the name Jesus is Greek, but why don’t Jehovah’s Witnesses use his Hebrew name, which is closer to *Joshua* than to *Jesus*?

Growing up having a Christian background, I was taught to use God/Jesus to refer to the Creator and Son. Recently, I've come across some information stating that our Creator has a Name and that we should use it, the name referring to Yahuah/Yahsuah, which would be in original Hebrew. Given that Jesus was a Jew and the original text was written in ancient Hebrew, would it be fair to say that instead of the more commonly accepted Greek version of His Name, that should we use the Hebrew versions instead? Also, if I'm misunderstanding anything in my post, I'm all ears, I'm just trying to figure out if we've been generalizing the Name and sort of not receiving the full effect of being able to state our Creators name and benefit from praising Him in that way. This, along with knowing that throughout history, things can get sort of lost in translation as we switch from languages. On top of the knowing that devil will do whatever it takes to twist and take the opposite approach of whatever the Creator does. > In the Bible, God declares: >> I am Jehovah. That is my name; I give my glory to no one else. >> Isaiah 42:8 - NWT > “Jehovah” is an English translation of the four Hebrew consonants YHWH, which constitute the divine name. That name appears some 7,000 times in the Hebrew Scriptures. It is used more often than any title, such as “God,” “Almighty,” or “Lord,” and more frequently than any other name, such as Abraham, Moses, or David`

It's only in the King James and the New King James, but why is Jesus' name in all caps? > And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: > for he shall save his people from their sins.**Matthew 1:21** > > And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, > and shalt call his name JESUS. **Luke 1:31** It isn't like this anywhere else in the Bible. The word in the Greek is the same as in other instances of the name. Why? And why only in the KJV?

I've been looking through the Septuagint and NT Greek manuscripts online and seen these different forms of the name for both Joshua and Jesus. Can someone please explain to me the differences?

Somewhat related to [Does Jesus have a last name?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/14482/45603) . In Forrest Gump (1994)'s scene where private Gump is assembling his weapon (during a drill exercise in the army) unusually fast, his drill sergeant says (emphasis mine): > **Jesus H. Christ**! That's a new company record. Is this a totally fictional saying? Part of script editor vision? Or has it any relation to Jesus actually having second name?

I love this passage, but especially the part that I have emphasized: > **The Heavenly Warrior Defeats the Beast** 11 I saw heaven standing open > and there before me was a white horse, whose rider is called Faithful > and True. With justice he judges and wages war. 12 His eyes are like > blazing fire, and on his head are many crowns. **He has a name written > on him that no one knows but he himself.** 13 He is dressed in a robe > dipped in blood, and his name is the Word of God. Revelation 19:11-13 > (NIV) So how can God (Jesus) have a secret identity, as indicated in this scripture? Is there support for this, or anything like it, elsewhere in scripture? I am interested in the Protestant answer to this question, especially also the Messianic Jewish answer, if possible. Although a Catholic answer will (probably) not be accepted, I would still appreciate a good answer.

Is saying "Jeez(e)!" (also: Geez(e), Jese, Jez, and with lower-case initial) using God's name in vain? According to the *OED*, the U.S. slang interjections Jeez(e and gee (from which comes gee whiz(z , a corruption geewhillikins , itself a corruption of "Jerusalem!") are corruptions of "Jesus!" These are called minced oaths .
🎩-tip Cairnarvon

I heard "Christ" isn't the last name He got from His parents. Is that true? Does He have a last name? If He does not have a last name, then how does that work? If that wasn't His last name, and there were other people named Jesus, then how could people even know which Jesus people were talking about? Please explain this to me in an easy to understand way, like if I am young.

Our Lord is often referred to as *Jesus* by the writers of the Gospels; however, I cannot think of an instance where He is referred to, or called, *Jesus* by any of His enemies (or strangers). Can anyone point me to an instance (in a Catholic Bible) where our Lord is called *Jesus* by one of His enemies or a stranger? It seems that "Sir", or "Rabbi", or perhaps, "Master" are the more likely salutations.

I know that "Christ" or "Messiah" means "anointed or anointed one" and that Jesus commonly has the title of "Christ." One thing I do not recall is an account of Him being anointed. To that end, what is the biblical basis for Jesus' title?

God / Jesus has many names which reveal something of His nature / character, e.g.: - Son of God (reveals His divine nature) - Son of Man (reveals His human nature) - etc. But "The Word" is more puzzling to me. Why is Jesus called "The Word" and what does it reveal about Him? > In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. John 1:1

At his birth he was called JESUS! After his exaltation he was given a NAME! Phillipians 2:9 > Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name What is that name?

We known the name of Christ through the Bible which is written in κοινή greek. In the original language the name is Ἰησοῦς which transliterated to Latin as Iesus and then to English as Jesus. **Why then do some Christians feel a need to Judaism the name and return it to Modern Hebrew יֵשׁוּעַ (Yeshua)?** Taking in consideration that Modern Hebrew is not the same as the Hebrew used at the time of Christ and that Modern Hebrew was invented in the XIX century. To clarify my concern I will cite from a book of John Owen about the subject >They said Jesus was anathema, or "one accursed." They looked at him as a person to be detested and abominated as the common odium of their gods and men. Hence, at his mention they used to say, "Jesus anathema." He is, or let him be, "accursed, detested, destroyed." And the Jews continue in this blasphemy to this day, hiding their cursed sentiments under a corrupt pronunciation of his name. For instead of Yeshua, they write and call him Yeshu (ישו), the initial letters of yimmach shemo vezikhro — that is, "Let his name and memory be blotted out;" the same as "Jesus anathema." And this blasphemy of pronouncing Jesus accursed was what the first persecutors of the church tested the faith of Christians with, as Pliny said in his epistle to Trajan;Justin Martyr with other apologists agree. _(On the Holy Spirit (Pneumatologia) by John Owen - Book 1 Chapter 1)_ Also according to Stanley Porter, in “Did Jesus Ever Teach In Greek?” (Tyndale Bulletin 44, no. 1 : 199–235) in Israel many Jews including Jesus spoke Greek. In John 19:20 the name of Ἰησοῦς and Iesus is used in front of the crowd >[John 19:20] Then many of the Jews read this title, for the place where Jesus was crucified was near the city; and it was written in Hebrew, Greek, and Latin.

The [Hebraic Roots Bible](http://www.coyhwh.com/en/bible.php) makes the claim, > The original New Testament was not written in Greek, but Aramaic. I thought that only the Gospel of Matthew might have been written in Aramaic, and that the rest of the NT was originally written in Greek. There is also the strange claim that the name Yahshua (Jesus) appears in the Old Testament: > There are also almost 100 scriptures in the Tanach (Old Testament) that personify our Savior’s name. Due to the fact that most translations do not use our Savior’s original Hebrew name they totally miss this fact. This is impossible because the Old Testament was written before Jesus was famous. Perhaps the word in these passages that the Hebraic Roots Bible translates as Yahshua should be translated as a simple word, not a name, as it is in other translations.

Peter had the following words to say to the rulers, elders and scribes in Jerusalem regarding the healing of the lame man at the temple : >... the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth ... neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved. > >[Acts 4: 10, 12 KJV] What is understood by Trinitarian Protestantism that salvation is by the 'name' of Jesus Christ and, more specifically, by the name 'Jesus Christ of Nazareth' ? Do Protestants understand that this is a matter of 'identification' possibly, or a matter of 'location', that is to say identifying and locating God himself in his manifestation in the Person of the Son of God ? Is this, according to Trinitarian Protestantism, a matter of identifying and locating the one true God that one might call upon **him (and him only)** for salvation ? It is noticeable that the apostle does not say 'Jesus Christ of Bethlehem', but 'Jesus Christ of Nazareth'. Does Trinitarian Protestantism have any light to shed upon this ?

The Greek verb for "he saves" is εσωσεν (*esosen*), and the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew name of Jesus (Yeshua, meaning Saviour, but coming from the Hebrew yoshia, meaning "He saves") is Ιησους (*iesous*).1 I'm certainly not privy to the internal minds of ancient Greek speakers, but I can imagine that if I were Greek-speaking, I would (if not consciously, then unconsciously) recognize the striking coincidence, and perhaps comment on it (it's my understanding that the Fathers in general understood the meaning of the Saviour's name to mean "Saviour"). Question -- Do any Fathers mention this similarity? --- 1 The only real different in pronunciation is the addition of "en" in the former (akin to the difference between "like" and "liken" in English, and the attendant unconscious recognition that the two are inherently related etymologically).

I would suspect that Jesus himself was the first to have the name "Jesus", but was there anyone before him with the same name? In other words, was the name completely unique when the Angel Gabriel told Mary to name her son "Jesus" or had the name been bestowed to someone else before? Today, the name is not rare (especially in some cultures), but was it so back then also?

The name Yeshua is the name of the true figure most commonly referred to as Jesus. Why was his named changed? If it was strictly a change of language than his name would be Joshua as it is the most fitting translation.

We read at Luke 2:21: "After eight days had passed, it was time to circumcise the child; and he was called Jesus, the name given by the angel before he was conceived in the womb." It is surprising that the Catholic Church which gives supreme importance to the Holy Name of Jesus, does not commemorate the day of naming of the Son of God by way of a Feast, while some other denominations do. My question therefore is: Why does the Catholic Church not celebrate the Feast of Naming of Jesus ?

> The proper name Jesus /ˈdʒiːzəs/ used in the English language > originates from the Latin form of the Greek name Ἰησοῦς (Iēsous), a > rendition of the Hebrew Yeshua (ישוע), also having the variants Joshua > or Jeshua. In a religious context, the name refers to Jesus, the > central figure of Christianity. Luke 1:31 > You will conceive and give birth to a son, and you are to call him > Jesus. The angel actually said, > you are to call him Yeshua. What is the Catholic explanation for translating Jesus's name? Jesus's name should be original because that's what the angel said his name is. In my native language, we don't say "Juraj Krik". Do you know who is Juraj Krik? No! It's George Bush. Nobody actually knows him under the translated name either. Everyone knows him under his English name. Why is it ok to translate Jesus's name? Doesn't the translation diminish the authenticity or even the authority of his name? Or what really matter is the person's individual attitude towards the name? Well, from the history we can see that it also matters when it comes to how we use the form, not just the content. We can also see that during exorcisms, I think they mostly use the Latin translation. Note: Adam & Eve stayed the same almost in all languages . So if Jesus is new Adam, his name should be the same in all languages too.