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Christianity

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8 votes
10 answers
2489 views
“Jesus said to them 'I am'" (John 18:6) - Did Jesus break a taboo here?
In the following verse, did Jesus in fact say the word, the name of God, that no Jew would dare to say aloud at that time? > As soon then as he had said unto them, I am [he], they went backward, > and fell to the ground (John 18:6) If yes, why was He not tried for that before the high priest (there...
In the following verse, did Jesus in fact say the word, the name of God, that no Jew would dare to say aloud at that time? > As soon then as he had said unto them, I am [he], they went backward, > and fell to the ground (John 18:6) If yes, why was He not tried for that before the high priest (there were so many witnesses after all)? If not, why then so many say that here He was quoting Exodus 3:14 (which means He DID pronounce the forbidden word)?
brilliant (10250 rep)
Jul 10, 2012, 09:31 AM • Last activity: Aug 6, 2025, 12:40 AM
3 votes
5 answers
1064 views
Logical contradiction for Christ to be YHWH in Zechariah 14:6-9?
I was finishing up a read through of the Hebrew Bible when I came across this gem: Zechariah 14:6-9 (NASB) > On that day there will be no light; the luminaries will die out. 7 For it will be a unique day which is known to the Lord, neither day nor night, but it will come about that at the time of ev...
I was finishing up a read through of the Hebrew Bible when I came across this gem: Zechariah 14:6-9 (NASB) > On that day there will be no light; the luminaries will die out. 7 For it will be a unique day which is known to the Lord, neither day nor night, but it will come about that at the time of evening there will be light. 8 And on that day living waters will flow out of Jerusalem, half of them toward the eastern sea and the other half toward the western sea; it will be in summer as well as in winter. > > 9 And the Lord will be King over all the earth; on that day the Lord will be the only one, and His name the only one. This passage posses a logical contradiction for those that would assert that Jesus is LORD (YHWH). First, in v7 it says that this unique day is known to the LORD, to YHWH. Yet Christ himself makes it clear that he himself does not know when this day is, nor anyone else, but only the Father knows it. Matthew 24:36 (NASB) > “But about that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone. Furthermore, in v9 it says that God alone will be King over all the earth; there won't be any other kings. Paul tells us that in the end, Christ himself will subjected to the Father - ie, there is an end to Christ's reign as king. 1 Corinthians 15:26-28 (NASB) > The last enemy that will be abolished is death. 27 For He has put all things in subjection under His feet. But when He says, “All things are put in subjection,” it is clear that this excludes the Father who put all things in subjection to Him. 28 When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself will also be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all. This is consistent with what the prophets said concerning the throne of David. Psalm 89:29 (NASB) > So I will establish his descendants forever, And his throne as the days of heaven. Isaiah 65:17 (NASB) > “For behold, I create new heavens and a new earth; And the former things will not be remembered or come to mind. So then, since Christ neither knows the day which is known to the LORD, to YHWH, and since his reign will end when God creates the new heavens and the new earth, then logically Christ cannot be YHWH. Rather, the only one who can be identified as YHWH given these restrictions is the Father. -------- **QUESTION**: How do Trinitarians address these two major conflicts? How can Christ be said to be YHWH when he does not know the day nor the hour when YHWH does know it? And if Christ's reign on the throne of David ends with the new creation, reversing the sin of Israel when they demanded a human king, then how can Christ be YHWH who is King over all - and at the end, the only king ?
Ryan Pierce Williams (1885 rep)
Jun 21, 2025, 10:30 AM • Last activity: Jul 31, 2025, 02:58 PM
3 votes
2 answers
1135 views
Why do most Bible translations bowdlerize the Tetragrammaton?
The Hebrew text of the Bible contains the Tetragrammaton many many times. This is used as a name, not as a title. And yet, the vast majority of Bible translations render this as LORD, not as a name. Prominent exceptions are the *Jerusalem Bible*, which uses *Yahweh*, and the *New World Translation*,...
The Hebrew text of the Bible contains the Tetragrammaton many many times. This is used as a name, not as a title. And yet, the vast majority of Bible translations render this as LORD, not as a name. Prominent exceptions are the *Jerusalem Bible*, which uses *Yahweh*, and the *New World Translation*, which uses *Jehovah*, [the traditional rendering in English](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/6193) . There are very few translations which [transliterate or otherwise retain the Tetragrammaton](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/65691) in their text. I believe that the intent of most translators is to imitate Jewish practice of not pronouncing the Divine Name; however, Jews do *write* the name in their holy texts. Similarly, Catholic practise is [not to pronounce the Name](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/3720) , but the Catholic *Jerusalem Bible* still contains it in written form. Why do most translations omit it?
TRiG (4617 rep)
Dec 2, 2018, 04:40 PM • Last activity: Jun 7, 2025, 06:19 AM
-1 votes
5 answers
1244 views
Trinitarian Ontology... What is it? Being vs person vs essence vs _______
I will try to ask this unique question again. How can we answer here without defining simple words used to define God? **Premise** [From Wikipedia:][1] >***Ontology*** addresses questions of how entities are grouped into categories and which of these entities exist on the most fundamental level. Ont...
I will try to ask this unique question again. How can we answer here without defining simple words used to define God? **Premise** From Wikipedia: >***Ontology*** addresses questions of how entities are grouped into categories and which of these entities exist on the most fundamental level. Ontologists often try to determine what the categories or highest kinds are and how they form a system of categories that encompasses classification of all entities. **person** pûr′sən noun >An individual of specified character. The composite of characteristics that make up an individual personality; the self. **personhood** pûr′sən-hoo͝d″ noun >The state or condition of being a person, especially having those qualities that confer distinct individuality. Grammerly.com >A **personal pronoun** is a short word we use as a simple substitute for the proper name of a **person**. The 1 God, YHWH, uses the **singular** masculine **personal pronoun** to describe **Himself**. So do the 3 **persons** of the trinity. The 1 true God, is described as having a ***personality***. Zephaniah 3:17 >YHWH your God in your midst, **The Mighty One**, will save; He will rejoice over you with gladness, He will quiet you with His love, He will rejoice over you with singing.” Isaiah 42:8 >"I am YHWH, ***that is My name***; And My glory I will not give to another, Nor My praise to carved images." *Note here: YHWH doesn't share His unique glory. His uniquely supreme nature is only His.* John 17:3 (*Jesus speaking directly to God Almighty*) >And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the **only true God**, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent. **QUESTION** -- ***According to the triune concept, there exist 3 eternal persons. How can 3 eternal persons with 3 distinct presences, be the 1 God of Israel?*** >“Hear, O Israel: YHWH our God, **YHWH is one**” (Deuteronomy 6:4). **God is one **what**? What is of one in the Trinity doctrine?** Please solve this equation: >***1person+1person+1person=1_____*** - a.) 1 person - b.) 1 being - c.) 1 essence - d.) 1 [other defined noun] Please define these words so that we can better understand. - If YHWH is **1 singular person**, how can 3 persons be 1 person and how many personalities? - If YHWH is **1 being**, how is a being different than a person? And how many personalities does this being have? - If YHWH is **1 non personified essence/nature**, please address how He addresses Himself with singular personal pronouns and His personality? __________________________________________________ Before flagging this question please read: **Stated rules for duplicates defined from this SE's META:** *"1.Having one 'perfect' form of a question that contains every possible answer to every slight variation of that question is a myth at best and actively harmful at worst.* *"2.Having dozens and dozens of variations of the same question is clearly bad.* *"3.What we want is on the order of 4 or 5 similar-but-not-quite-the-same duplicates to cover all possible search terms and common permutations of the question. It is also OK for these duplicates to have their own answers so people who find them don’t have to click yet again to get to a good answer."*
Read Less Pray More (152 rep)
Jun 29, 2023, 06:28 PM • Last activity: May 17, 2025, 07:04 PM
3 votes
7 answers
11997 views
GOD/JESUS - Greek - Yahuwah/Yashuah - Hebrew
Growing up having a Christian background, I was taught to use God/Jesus to refer to the Creator and Son. Recently, I've come across some information stating that our Creator has a Name and that we should use it, the name referring to Yahuah/Yahsuah, which would be in original Hebrew. Given that Jesu...
Growing up having a Christian background, I was taught to use God/Jesus to refer to the Creator and Son. Recently, I've come across some information stating that our Creator has a Name and that we should use it, the name referring to Yahuah/Yahsuah, which would be in original Hebrew. Given that Jesus was a Jew and the original text was written in ancient Hebrew, would it be fair to say that instead of the more commonly accepted Greek version of His Name, that should we use the Hebrew versions instead? Also, if I'm misunderstanding anything in my post, I'm all ears, I'm just trying to figure out if we've been generalizing the Name and sort of not receiving the full effect of being able to state our Creators name and benefit from praising Him in that way. This, along with knowing that throughout history, things can get sort of lost in translation as we switch from languages. On top of the knowing that devil will do whatever it takes to twist and take the opposite approach of whatever the Creator does. > In the Bible, God declares: >> I am Jehovah. That is my name; I give my glory to no one else. >> Isaiah 42:8 - NWT > “Jehovah” is an English translation of the four Hebrew consonants YHWH, which constitute the divine name. That name appears some 7,000 times in the Hebrew Scriptures. It is used more often than any title, such as “God,” “Almighty,” or “Lord,” and more frequently than any other name, such as Abraham, Moses, or David`
mph85 (193 rep)
Apr 3, 2019, 08:31 PM • Last activity: Mar 23, 2025, 01:21 PM
-1 votes
2 answers
128 views
If The Son is The "Logos", meaning The Word/Voice of YHWH(God). Then didn't HE, The Son, really give HIS Name in Exodus 3:15?
*Edit* > "This question is similar to: Are the words that Jesus spoke the > Logos?. If you believe it’s different, please edit the question, make > it clear how it’s different and/or how the answers on that question > are not helpful for your problem."* This isn't the same. The answer is inadequate...
*Edit* > "This question is similar to: Are the words that Jesus spoke the > Logos?. If you believe it’s different, please edit the question, make > it clear how it’s different and/or how the answers on that question > are not helpful for your problem."* This isn't the same. The answer is inadequate with no "scriptural" basis, explanation for Exodus 3:15, and is based off of sheer conjecture. ---------- Greetings and peace be with you. I hope this isn't too controversial, for all I care about is the truth. I was an atheist for over 20+ years who "converted" just 3 years ago. Not seeing "jesus" in the original Greek writings, and the nomina sacra being used in the Codex Sinaiticus and Vaticanus instead of "ΙΗΣΟΥΣ" led me to a deeper study. It goes from "IY"(Nomina Sacra), "ΙΗΣΟΥΣ/Ἰησοῦς", "Iesus", and then to "Jesus". But what really matters is The Word itself. What does the Word say? John 1:1 > In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word > was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through Him all things were > made, and without Him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In Him was > life, and that life was the light of men. "Word" is from the Greek word "Logos", that is normally translated as "Word", but can also be as "Speech". HE was Elohim(God) and with Elohim from the beginning. The Son was the first "born" over all creation, meaning HE was not "created".(Colossians 1:15) Through Him all things were made, and without Him nothing was made that has been made. HE was called "The Author of Life".(Acts 3:15) HE even calls HIMSELF "the Originator of God’s creation".(Revelation 3:14) Paul even says HE was, "Given The Name above all Names". We are told that YHWH is the Most High over all, for David said, "For You, O YHWH, are Most High over all the earth; You are exalted far above all gods."(Psalm 97:9), as just one example. HE is also "The Prophet" who was told to come as Israel's mediator just like Moses.(Deuteronomy 18:15-19, Acts 7:37) We see that YHWH created the Heaven and Earth by HIS Voice... The "Logos", or the Hebrew equivalent "Dabar". Psalm 148:5 > Let them praise the name of YHWH, for He gave the command and they > were created. Genesis 1:3 > And Elohim(God) said, “Let there be light,” and there was light. So according the the writings(scripture) The Son is the literal Voice of Elohim(God). Who was born, not created, meaning the first thing The Father did was speak. Then, everything made through that Voice(The Son). The question is wouldn't that mean HE, The Son, told Moses HIS Name in Exodus 3:15? Can we now take John 5:43, and John 17:11-12 literal? Exodus 3:15 - Literal Standard Version > And God says again to Moses, “Thus you say to the sons of Israel: > YHWH, God of your fathers, God of Abraham, God of Isaac, and God of > Jacob, has sent me to you; this [is] My Name for all time, and this > [is] My memorial, to generation [and] generation. John 5:46 > If you had believed Moses, you would believe Me, because he wrote > about Me.
YHWHSTRUTH (9 rep)
Dec 30, 2024, 11:48 AM • Last activity: Feb 9, 2025, 09:21 AM
1 votes
3 answers
5866 views
Is it true that Yahweh was part of a polytheistic religion?
I remembered recently that long ago, in middle school, my history teacher told us in the class that Yahweh, the Hebrew God was a god part of a polytheistic religion, and that He wasn't even the king of gods(like Zeus from Greek religion), and that Abraham choose Him(Yahweh) from the other gods to be...
I remembered recently that long ago, in middle school, my history teacher told us in the class that Yahweh, the Hebrew God was a god part of a polytheistic religion, and that He wasn't even the king of gods(like Zeus from Greek religion), and that Abraham choose Him(Yahweh) from the other gods to be the all-mighty, all-knowing, all-powerful, single God to his new monotheistic religion, that he passed to his son Issac and his grand-son Israel and it became the God of Israel nation and trough Jesus(who was part of the Israeli nation, kingdom of Judah), it became God-The Father for us, Christians. This sounds like a blasphemy to me, but is this based on any historical discovery, or has it any theological or historical veracity?
MikeyJY (393 rep)
Jul 18, 2023, 07:32 PM • Last activity: Jan 29, 2024, 04:34 AM
5 votes
4 answers
11311 views
Could the Tetragrammaton YHWH be an onomatopoeia for the sound of breathing?
I was thinking about YHWH today and realized an early name for God might have been the sound of breathing as God breathed life into us, then imagined how you might write that and realized YHWH, if pronounced, is an onomatopoeia of the sound you make when you breath. If I was tasked with writing the...
I was thinking about YHWH today and realized an early name for God might have been the sound of breathing as God breathed life into us, then imagined how you might write that and realized YHWH, if pronounced, is an onomatopoeia of the sound you make when you breath. If I was tasked with writing the word for the sound of breath, in English, it would likely come out something like 'heehoo' or something similar—perhaps with the Hebrew alphabet 'YHWH' (יהוה) is a more probable attempt. Is it possible that YHWH could be the full name intended, and it on purpose has no vowels; or is there strong evidence that it is an actual word, not an onomatopoeia, and vowels were omitted for some other purpose (I think I was told that once). Curious to learn more! Edit: I asked this about 5 years ago, since then this idea has apparently gained a lot of movement to the point where this thread is getting activity again. I also noticed Jesus' name (Yeshua) can be pronounced this same way YH•WH can be pronounced as breath—but with a “SH” noise added in the middle. YH•SH•WH
Albert Renshaw (534 rep)
Mar 12, 2019, 07:39 AM • Last activity: Dec 14, 2023, 02:57 AM
2 votes
3 answers
6171 views
How do you say "My Lord and my God" in Aramaic or Hebrew?
Thomas said, "O Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός μου" (koine Greek), "My Lord and my God" (English). What would he have said in Aramaic (Hebrew?) in John 20:28? Would it relate to Adonai and Yahweh?
Thomas said, "O Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός μου" (koine Greek), "My Lord and my God" (English). What would he have said in Aramaic (Hebrew?) in John 20:28? Would it relate to Adonai and Yahweh?
Jim Gaidis (187 rep)
May 26, 2022, 02:02 PM • Last activity: Oct 14, 2023, 12:58 AM
2 votes
6 answers
3211 views
Discrepancy between Yahweh (Christian Bibles) and Eh-yeh (Torah)
I am currently working on a religious drama and outsmarted myself. I come to you for help. Growing up Jewish, I did not hear the term Yahweh until I was 14 in Western Civilization. "Well, you know, right? It's, you know, God." And my reply, "I have no idea what you're talking about, and seriously, t...
I am currently working on a religious drama and outsmarted myself. I come to you for help. Growing up Jewish, I did not hear the term Yahweh until I was 14 in Western Civilization. "Well, you know, right? It's, you know, God." And my reply, "I have no idea what you're talking about, and seriously, there isn't even a *w* in Hebrew so try again." Nor in Ancient Greek! Although, some would say the Hebrew letter *vav* can behave like a *w*. Next, my Torah portion included Exodus 3:14 (and I gotta tell you, reading off an animal skin scroll is cool!). It says *Eh-yeh asher Eh-yeh*. Even among Jews, there is some controversy because of limitations within Hebrew of future tense. However, "I shall be what I shall be" is without fault as an English translation of the Hebrew. Certainly the Christian Bible "I am who [what] I am" is a very different statement. The Torah has been meticulously transcribed letter by letter for 2600 years So I asked a (Conservative) rabbi. We agreed the line from Exodus 3:14 contained neither a *Yah* nor a *weh*. "So, Rabbi, where does this word come from?" She says, "Well it really has nothing to do with Exodus 3:14. Here read this." And I read, "*Barukh atah Adonai--*" "You can stop there," she says. "The third word does not state 'Adonai.' Why do you say that?" And my response is "Because that [what I read] is how we spell our Lord's name on paper--probably to prevent us from being insulting." And she says "And what does it actually read?" My Hebrew is not so great but I manage "*Yeh-vah?*" She says, "That's the best I can do." Although I might benefit from seeing a Protestant minister, I wound up with a visit at a nearby Catholic Church. Although we came to no further conclusion on the matter, we agreed that Yeshua was an awfully nice Hebrew name. I've read quite a bit over the years on the subject. Most of the commentary is either too mystical or too one-sided to be useful to my project or me. Specifically, how did "Yahweh" become a word of such prominence in Western literature and lexicon? I've redacted the latter part of my question, and thank you for your information thus far. For clarification, I'll add: YHVH, or whatever you want to call it, is little more than a placeholder in modern Hebrew prayers; it is simply not said, and has been further redacted to YY. I've seen it a million times, but I just say Lord ("Adonai"). The idea that the placeholder held any real significance was lost on me until much later in life. I do not know what was spoken in biblical times, but that doesn't matter. The discussion of Jehovah below is helpful, but as long as I'm still open for business ... Edit: I recently asked an Orthodox rabbi. Orthodox Judaism tends to be more mystical, if you will (Chabad.org). The response: "It is actually one of many names for the Divine. ... It was not used in general prayers during the times of the Temple [Kings]. ... It is unknown what was spoken during the time of Moses."
Stu W (979 rep)
Feb 18, 2016, 07:05 PM • Last activity: Sep 22, 2023, 10:38 AM
14 votes
1 answers
839 views
Why did the KJV translators translate יהוה on the extremely rare occasion as IEHOVAH rather than LORD?
The KJV translators almost always translated the Tetragrammaton into English as "LORD" (all capital letters). For example, in Deut. 6:4: ![enter image description here][1] But, on the rare occasion—**extremely** rare—they chose instead to write "IEHOVAH" instead of "LORD." Now, this question is NOT...
The KJV translators almost always translated the Tetragrammaton into English as "LORD" (all capital letters). For example, in Deut. 6:4: enter image description here But, on the rare occasion—**extremely** rare—they chose instead to write "IEHOVAH" instead of "LORD." Now, this question is NOT about the pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton. The question is, why did the KJV translators seemingly break their rule of writing "LORD" for the Tetragrammaton in these instances? For example, in Exo. 6:3: enter image description here in Psa. 83:18: enter image description here in Isa. 12:2: enter image description here in Isa. 26:4: enter image description here
user900
Aug 23, 2013, 06:47 AM • Last activity: Jul 17, 2023, 01:50 PM
6 votes
5 answers
1530 views
According to Trinitarians, when the term Yahweh ('LORD') is used in the OT, who exactly is being referred to?
According to Unitarian Christians, the identity of Yahweh is straightforward. Yahweh = the Father = God. Therefore, linguistic usage in the OT is fairly straightforward. Whenever Yahweh ('LORD') is mentioned, it is the Father. For Trinitarians, when Yahweh is used in the OT, what does it mean? Is it...
According to Unitarian Christians, the identity of Yahweh is straightforward. Yahweh = the Father = God. Therefore, linguistic usage in the OT is fairly straightforward. Whenever Yahweh ('LORD') is mentioned, it is the Father. For Trinitarians, when Yahweh is used in the OT, what does it mean? Is it God inclusive of the 3 persons of the Trinity? Or does it mean the Father? The Son? Or, like the word 'God' in the New Testament according to Trinitarians, does the meaning of Yahweh in the OT change depending on context?
Only True God (6934 rep)
Apr 29, 2022, 06:28 PM • Last activity: Jul 15, 2023, 02:22 PM
1 votes
2 answers
1348 views
Did Moses write YHWH or God's full name?
We know God's name was written in the Old Testament over 6000 times, but was it God's full name or the Tetragrammaton, YHVH?? Because of the Babylonian exile, they stopped using it altogether and instead used Adonai and El/Elohim. In which case, when or how was the Tetragrammaton used? Cause if the...
We know God's name was written in the Old Testament over 6000 times, but was it God's full name or the Tetragrammaton, YHVH?? Because of the Babylonian exile, they stopped using it altogether and instead used Adonai and El/Elohim. In which case, when or how was the Tetragrammaton used? Cause if the original authors were writing YHVH, then that meant they too felt God's name shouldn’t be pronounced. Which I feel should give people pause for using it nowadays as well. But if that’s not the case, then how was the YHVH used?
pinkie (21 rep)
Jun 1, 2023, 04:35 AM • Last activity: Jun 2, 2023, 03:23 PM
1 votes
3 answers
2305 views
Of what date is the oldest inscription of Yahweh found?
Is it true that there is an inscription of Yahweh found that is older than when Moses was revealed the name of God in the Bible?
Is it true that there is an inscription of Yahweh found that is older than when Moses was revealed the name of God in the Bible?
user3125707 (299 rep)
Sep 8, 2018, 05:32 PM • Last activity: Aug 1, 2022, 01:51 PM
2 votes
3 answers
1332 views
How do Trinitarians who argue the 'ego eimi' at John 8:58 ought to be translated 'I AM' explain the lack of reactions to the same phrase?
At John 8:58, Jesus says > "Before Abraham was born, I am the one." (REV) The Greek is πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί Because the Jews then pick up stones, some Trinitarians believe there is an inference here that Jesus is claiming to be Yahweh, with a connection between God's name as revealed in Exo...
At John 8:58, Jesus says > "Before Abraham was born, I am the one." (REV) The Greek is πρὶν Ἀβραὰμ γενέσθαι ἐγὼ εἰμί Because the Jews then pick up stones, some Trinitarians believe there is an inference here that Jesus is claiming to be Yahweh, with a connection between God's name as revealed in Exodus and the Greek term ἐγὼ εἰμί (ego eimi). So they would translate this as > "Before Abraham was, I AM." (NKJV) where the 'I AM' is capitalized by the translator to indicate a reference to Yahweh, in the style of how 'LORD' is capitalized in various translations to replace Yahweh in the Old Testament. Yet, if you go back to just John 8:24, Jesus uses the same phrase. > "Therefore I said to you that you will die in your sins; for unless > you believe that **I am He**, you will die in your sins." Here, most translations say "I am he" (ego eimi) instead of just "I am" (or "I AM"), because that's the sort of meaning the phrase imparts in Koine Greek. Even closer, at John 8:28, Jesus says > "“When you have lifted up the Son of Man, then you will know that **I am > He**" Similarly, most translations say "I am he" (ego eimi) because, again, that's just what the phrase means in this sort of context. Furthermore, if you just skip ahead 10 lines from John 8:58, someone *else* says 'ego eimi' at John 9:9. > "But the man kept saying, “**I am the one**.”" Again, 'I am the one' is just a normal translation of 'ego eimi'. Not only did the man say 'ego eimi', he kept saying it. We have 3 proximate uses of 'ego eimi' to John 8:58, yet none of them are typically translated 'I AM' or even just 'I am' and there is no recorded reaction to the use of the words. According to those who think the picking up of stones is due to a reference to Yahweh because of the phrase 'ego eimi', how is this discrepancy explained?
Only True God (6934 rep)
Jun 2, 2022, 04:23 PM • Last activity: Jun 3, 2022, 12:41 PM
4 votes
2 answers
198 views
What is the LDS understanding of Deut. 4:35?
I have copied these following quotations from a study section of the [Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints website][1] explaining the identity of the God of the Old Testament: > Elder James E. Talmage explained the special significance Elohim has > for Latter-day Saints: > > “The name Elohim...
I have copied these following quotations from a study section of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints website explaining the identity of the God of the Old Testament: > Elder James E. Talmage explained the special significance Elohim has > for Latter-day Saints: > > “The name Elohim … is expressive of supreme or absolute exaltation and > power. Elohim, as understood and used in the restored Church of Jesus > Christ, is the name-title of God the Eternal Father, whose firstborn > Son in the spirit is Jehovah—the Only Begotten in the flesh, Jesus > Christ.” (Jesus the Christ, p. 38.) Additionally the website says: > It is vital to remember the place of God the Father: He is the Father > of our spirits (see Hebrews 12:9) and is our God. The existence of > other Gods cannot alter that fact. He is the author and sponsor of the > eternal plan of salvation. It is equally essential to note, however, > that the agent by whom He administers His affairs on this earth is His > Firstborn Son, known as Jehovah in the Old Testament. It appears obvious that LDS views Elohim and Jehovah as two separate entities. Yet in Deuteronomy 4, in the midst of a passage wherein God is asserting yet again that there is no other God beside Him, we find: > Unto thee it was shewed, that thou mightest know that the **LORD he is God**; there is none else beside him. - Deuteronomy 4:35 And the Hebrew beneath this passage is: 859 [e] אַתָּה֙ ’at-tāh to you Pro-2ms 7200 [e] הָרְאֵ֣תָ hā-rə-’ê-ṯā it was shown V-Hofal-Perf-2ms 3045 [e] לָדַ֔עַת lā-ḏa-‘aṯ, that you might know Prep-l | V-Qal-Inf 3588 [e] כִּ֥י kî that Conj 3068 [e] יְהוָ֖ה **Yah-weh Yahweh** N-proper-ms 1931 [e] ה֣וּא **hū He** Pro-3ms 430 [e] הָאֱלֹהִ֑ים **hā-’ĕ-lō-hîm; [is] God** Art | N-mp 369 [e] אֵ֥ין ’ên [there is] none Adv 5750 [e] ע֖וֹד ‘ō-wḏ other Adv 905 [e] מִלְבַדּֽוֹ׃‪‬ mil-ḇad-dōw. besides Him Prep-m, Prep-l | N-msc | 3ms In making the statement that there is no other God beside Him, God says, "Yahweh (Jehovah) He is Elohim." How does LDS understand this statement that Jehovah and Elohim are one and the same?
Mike Borden (24105 rep)
Oct 31, 2021, 12:56 PM • Last activity: May 31, 2022, 07:20 PM
4 votes
4 answers
1032 views
According to Latter-day Saints, Jesus is Jehovah in OT. Therefore do they view all the occurrences of the Tetragrammaton as referring to Jesus?
Lesson 5 in the "Jesus Christ and the Everlasting Gospel Teacher Manual" ([link][1]) has the title **Jesus Christ Was Jehovah of the Old Testament**. In the introduction this lesson says that: > In testifying of the Savior Jesus Christ, modern prophets have > declared: “He was the Great Jehovah of t...
Lesson 5 in the "Jesus Christ and the Everlasting Gospel Teacher Manual" (link ) has the title **Jesus Christ Was Jehovah of the Old Testament**. In the introduction this lesson says that: > In testifying of the Savior Jesus Christ, modern prophets have > declared: “He was the Great Jehovah of the Old Testament” (“The Living > Christ: The Testimony of the Apostles,” Ensign or Liahona, Apr. 2000, > 2). Jesus Christ, as Jehovah, established Heavenly Father’s > everlasting gospel on the earth in every dispensation of time in order > to gather in every one of God’s children who were lost. According to the LDS are all occurrences of the Tetragrammaton in Old Testament then references to Jesus?
Dee (502 rep)
Sep 12, 2019, 01:47 AM • Last activity: May 21, 2022, 05:58 PM
15 votes
4 answers
23531 views
Why is the word 'Lord' in all caps in the OT but not in the NT?
My friend asked me the other day, why is the word 'Lord' in all capital letters in the Old Testament but not the New Testament? I tend to lean towards the fact that the OT was written in Hebrew and the word for God in Hebrew is YAHWEH, or rather YHWH, and since they believed His name was so Holy, th...
My friend asked me the other day, why is the word 'Lord' in all capital letters in the Old Testament but not the New Testament? I tend to lean towards the fact that the OT was written in Hebrew and the word for God in Hebrew is YAHWEH, or rather YHWH, and since they believed His name was so Holy, they only used capital letters.
Rachel (159 rep)
Aug 27, 2012, 12:10 AM • Last activity: Mar 18, 2021, 11:47 AM
2 votes
1 answers
252 views
Do Jehovah's Witnesses think there is an important difference between saying 'Jehovah' and 'Yahweh'?
As the denomination's name implies, Jehovah's Witnesses place importance on the name Jehovah. Do they distinguish between Jehovah, Yahweh, the Tetragrammaton, and so on, or do they think these are all acceptable versions of God's name? Also, is there any emphasis placed on how to pronounce 'Jehovah'...
As the denomination's name implies, Jehovah's Witnesses place importance on the name Jehovah. Do they distinguish between Jehovah, Yahweh, the Tetragrammaton, and so on, or do they think these are all acceptable versions of God's name? Also, is there any emphasis placed on how to pronounce 'Jehovah', or is the pronunciation considered non-essential?
Only True God (6934 rep)
Feb 17, 2021, 09:56 PM • Last activity: Feb 19, 2021, 09:15 AM
15 votes
2 answers
2695 views
Does the divine name YHWH (יַהְוֶה) apply equally to all Persons of the Trinity? (Catholic/Nicene perspective)
According to the Catholic Church (and other Nicene Churches), does the divine name YHWH (יַהְוֶה) apply equally to all Persons of the Sacred Trinity?
According to the Catholic Church (and other Nicene Churches), does the divine name YHWH (יַהְוֶה) apply equally to all Persons of the Sacred Trinity?
AthanasiusOfAlex (13399 rep)
May 3, 2016, 01:37 PM • Last activity: Jul 24, 2020, 01:48 AM
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