> And about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, saying, "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?" that is, "My God, My God, why have You forsaken Me?" > > Some of those who stood there, when they heard that, said, "This Man is calling for Elijah!" (Matthew 27:46-47, NKJV) According to a number of sites, including Wikipedia , the saying "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani" (or in Mark's version "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani") was originally Aramaic: > אלהי אלהי למא שבקתני. > > Courtesy of Wikipedia However, according to some other sites it is Hebrew. Regardless of which is right, I don't think it can be denied that the Jews mistook what he said. I used to take this to mean that he was speaking in a language they did not understand. However, as far as I know and have learned from our good friend Google, Jews at that time spoke both Hebrew and Aramaic (plus some Greek, and perhaps Latin). How, then, did the Jews mistake his meaning?

*Sefer Ha-Mitzvoth of Maimonides*, Volume two, Negative Commandment 63: "Neither shalt thou profane the name of they God: I am the Lord." Lev. XVIII, 21. "And you shall not let any of your seed pass through the fire to Molek, neither shall you profane את eth-the name of your ELOHIYM: I am YAHUAH." Leviticus 18:21, *eth-Cepher*. את "eth" appears many times in the Scriptures, א (tau) ת (alep) in Hebrew order, is "beginning to end" in English order. The LXX came about circa 300 B.C. Subsequently, the Jews compromised with Greek philosophy, and by 265 B.C. placed a ban on using the Set-Apart Names, *Yehueh* and *Elohim*, and replaced them with *Lord* and *God* (and variations thereof). Those substitutions are found in nearly all English translations of Scripture. "And you shall not swear by My Name to a falsehood; nor shall you pollute the name of your Elohim; I AM Yehueh." Leviticus 19:12, *eth-Cepher*. "You shall not take the name of Yehueh your Elohim in vain; for Yehueh will not leave unpunished the one who takes His name in vain." Exodus 20:7. "How long shall this be in the heart of the prophets that prophesy lies? yea, they are prophets of the deceit of their own heart; Which think to cause את eth-my people to forget my name by their dreams which they tell every man to his neighbour, as their fathers have forgotten my name for Ba`al." Yermeyahu 23:26-27, *eth-Cepher*. During the times since the Dead Sea Scroll were found, hundreds, if not thousands more writings have been found that prove the original Hebrew and Aramaic truths have been highjacked by the traditions brought from the Judeo-Greco-Roman-Latin as seen in our Bibles. Why does this practice continue? Why are our leaders, pastors, and teachers not restoring these Set-Apart Names in our churches? Shalom.

Not necessarily 1st century Galilean Aramaic, it can be the Imperial Aramaic used for parts of the book of Daniel, or the Targumic Aramaic used in the interpretive Jewish translations of Scripture. But when does the first publication of a Lord's prayer translation in a distinctively Jewish (as opposed to Syriac) Aramaic dialect date back to, and what is the text? I'm looking for it in Hebrew (square) letters with nikkud/vowel points

Thomas said, "O Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός μου" (koine Greek), "My Lord and my God" (English). What would he have said in Aramaic (Hebrew?) in John 20:28? Would it relate to Adonai and Yahweh?

I would like to know how to print out Jesus is God in Aramaic specifically the Aramaic Christ spoke.

What is the word used for "devil" in Mel Gibson's movie "The Passion of the Christ" during the scene where Christ is interrogated by the Sanhedrin? The word "devil" appears in the English subtitles three times in this scene as a couple of characters give testimony against Christ. It sounds to me like they're saying "sha-dai-ah." When I search for what I'm hearing I find El Shaddai , which is the Hebrew word for "God Almighty," not "devil." I know that the dialog of this film is in Aramaic, Hebrew, and Latin. I can distinguish the Latin dialog from the rest, but I can't distinguish between the Aramaic and Hebrew. I think that Hebrew is used during the Sanhedrin scene.

Which Aramaic speaking Christian Church(es) uses a dialect of Aramaic in their liturgy that is the closest to the dialect that Jesus of Nazareth spoke in Palestine some 2000 years ago? Jesus spoke with a Galilean dialect of Aramaic.

Saul spoke Greek, Aramaic, Hebrew, and Latin (there are many references). Jesus spoke Aramaic, Greek, and Hebrew (again there are many references). In Acts 26:14, Paul (who at this time was using his second name Paul, being a Roman, rather than his first name Saul), testified to Agrippa, possibly in Greek, that when Jesus confronted him on the road to Damascus, Jesus spoke to him in Aramaic and said, "It is hard for thee to kick against the pricks" (KJV), or "it is hard for thee to kick against the goad" (in other versions), which is a Greek proverb. Is there any significance or relevance here of Jesus speaking in Aramaic and using a Greek proverb to Saul (who became Paul later on), who spoke four languages?

I had thought that the Old Testament had two versions: Greek and Hebrew. Today, from this link I've found that before the Greek Bible, there was another version, the Aramaic Bible. During Jesus time, did the Jews use versions of the Old Testament in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek? Did they use versions in other languages? ---------- I'm sorry as I have misunderstood the link above. After searching the internet, I found another link : > The writings of the Old Testament of **the Bible were preserved in three > languages - Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek**, and have been passed on to us ...//cut And this > The originality and the importance of Aramaic Old Testament (known as > Peshitta Tanakh) can be seen through its consistency by solivng the > contradiction between Septuagint and Hebrew Masoretic Text (Hebrew > Old Testament written several centuries after Jesus Christ) I'm unable to find out about on what year the Aramaic Old Testament began to be used or translated. ---------- Today I search more about my question, and this link say : > Jesus was quoting Aramaic. Not Septuagint. Aramaic was the spoken > language of first century Israel. From the sentence above, then there were three version Bible language in that time. But it seems still not clear as in Wiki I found out : 1. What Theodore of Mopsuestia says of the Old Testament is true of both: "These Scriptures were translated into the tongue of the Syriacs by someone indeed at some time, but who on earth this was has not been made known down to our day". 2. F. Crawford Burkitt concluded that the translation of the Old Testament was probably the work of Jews, of whom there was a colony in Edessa about the commencement of the Christian era. 3. The older view was that the translators were Christians, and that the work was done late in the 1st century or early in the 2nd. Today I've also read this link which I get from this link > The Peshitta Tanakh is the ancient Scriptures translated into Lishana > Aramaya (Aramaic language) from the original Hebrew text which > pre-dated the Greek Septuagint text (LXX).

The [Hebraic Roots Bible](http://www.coyhwh.com/en/bible.php) makes the claim, > The original New Testament was not written in Greek, but Aramaic. I thought that only the Gospel of Matthew might have been written in Aramaic, and that the rest of the NT was originally written in Greek. There is also the strange claim that the name Yahshua (Jesus) appears in the Old Testament: > There are also almost 100 scriptures in the Tanach (Old Testament) that personify our Savior’s name. Due to the fact that most translations do not use our Savior’s original Hebrew name they totally miss this fact. This is impossible because the Old Testament was written before Jesus was famous. Perhaps the word in these passages that the Hebraic Roots Bible translates as Yahshua should be translated as a simple word, not a name, as it is in other translations.

In all Christian Bibles the translators wrote this verse in the same language and translated it, (maybe it's Hebrew which I don't know) but why only Mark 15:34 in the whole, is it because when Jesus was crying He cried in another language?

There are a few instances in the Gospels where the words originally spoken by Jesus are transliterated . For instance, we see at Mark 5:41 ;" He took her by the hand and said to her, “Talitha koum!” (which means “Little girl, I say to you, get up!”). We also see at Mark 15:34: " At three o’clock Jesus cried out with a loud voice, “Eloi, Eloi, lema sabachthani?” which means, “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?” One would be curious to know as to why only a few original words of Jesus in Aramaic are transliterated in the Gospel . Did evangelist Mark intend to give certain emphasis by quoting the original words ? What is the Catholic Church's teaching on this topic ?

John 21:15-17 recounts a powerful conversation between Jesus and Peter, where Jesus asks Peter, three times, if he loves Him. Greek has [several words for "love"](http://bit.ly/1O5C83U) . In Greek, the dialogue goes like this: - Do you love (ἀγαπάω/agape) me? - You know that I love (φιλέω/phileo) you. - Do you love (agape) me? - You know that I love (phileo) you. - Do you love (phileo) me? - You know all things. You know that I love (phileo) you. Jesus uses the word for God's love the first two times, and Peter responds with brotherly love all three. When Jesus uses "phileo" the third time, Peter seems to break down. It is indeed a very powerful interaction (as [discussed elsewhere](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/895/dialog-between-jesus-and-peter-in-john-21-whats-going-on)) ... but it only works in Greek. Aramaic is thought to be the common language between Jesus and His disciples, but Aramaic doesn't have a way to distinguish between these different types of love like Greek does. How do Bible scholars reconcile the fact that Aramaic does not have the diversity of vocabulary necessary to convey the distinction that is made in the Greek?

I'm wondering which parts of the bible were written in Aramaic? I believe certain parts of Daniel were written in Aramaic. Which parts exactly and is there anywhere else in the bible that were written in Aramaic? I'm also wondering if the parts of the bible which were written in the Aramaic language also make use of Aramaic script in the original manuscripts, or do they use Hebrew script instead? (So as to fit in with the rest of the scriptures) If this is the case, it would be possible for someone who doesn't understand Hebrew or Aramaic to read the original manuscripts and not realise that the language had changed, because the script is the same.

Why aren't certain words like *Maranatha, Talitha Cumi, Eli Eli Lama Sabachthani,* etc., not translated in the Bible? Rather, the words are directly written and then their meaning or interpretation? As the whole Bible is translated from some other languages, why leave certain words alone untranslated?

Having read this and this , I am convinced now that Jesus spoke Aramaic. However, I also know that many times He was quoting Septuagint, which is a translation of the Old Testament into Koine Greek. I am a little bit confused now. Does it mean that when He was talking to His disciples or to the Jews and was quoting Septuagint, He was switching from Aramaic to Greek? If yes, then it sounds a bit contradictory to me. Why would He need to switch to Greek while He was talking to the Hebrew people, not to the Greeks, about their own Holy Scripture (Jews' aversion toward the Greek is quite evident from the book of Acts)? If no, then how can we say that He was quoting Septuagint (as I know Septuagint was written only in Greek)?