It was mentioned in Exodus that God has granted Moses abilities such as turning his staff into a snake and turning the water of the Nile into blood in order to make the people believe he was sent by God. Why had God not by himself saved the Israelites from slavery? Why did he not talk to them? “But I will harden Pharaoh’s heart, and though I multiply my signs and wonders in Egypt,” why did God harden pharaohs heart and torment the Israelites more?

In Exodus, God commands Moses to strike a rock, and promises to make water flow in the desert for the people. > Behold, I will stand before you there on the rock at Horeb, and you > shall strike the rock, and water shall come out of it, and the people > will drink.” And Moses did so, in the sight of the elders of Israel. > (Exodus 17:6 ESV) Later on, God tells Moses to speak to a rock, promising to make water flow in the desert again. However, Moses strikes the rock again instead of speaking to it. Because of just this one thing, God tells Moses that he will no longer be permitted bring the people into the Promised Land. > “Take the staff, and assemble the congregation, you and Aaron your > brother, and **tell the rock before their eyes to yield its water**. > So you shall bring water out of the rock for them and give drink to > the congregation and their cattle.” 9 And Moses took the staff from > before the Lord, as he commanded him. 10 Then Moses and Aaron gathered > the assembly together before the rock, and he said to them, “Hear now, > you rebels: shall we bring water for you out of this rock?” 11 And > Moses lifted up his hand and **struck the rock** with his staff twice, > and water came out abundantly, and the congregation drank, and their > livestock. 12 And the Lord said to Moses and Aaron, “Because you did > not believe in me, to uphold me as holy in the eyes of the people of > Israel, therefore **you shall not bring this assembly into the land > that I have given them**.” (Numbers 20:8-12 ESV, emphasis added) Why was the punishment so harsh for what seems like a small infraction? Was there something greater or more symbolic going on here?

Please note, I am not asking what was inside the Ark of the Covenant (question asked in June 2013) but what happened to Aaron's budding staff and the jar of manna by the time the Ark of the Covenant was placed in the temple built by Solomon. Exodus 16:33-34 says the jar of manna was placed in the Ark in front of the stone tablets. Numbers 17:10 says Aaron's budding staff was placed in front of/before the Ark of the Covenant. 1 Kings 8:9 and 2 Chronicles 5:10 both say that by the time the Ark of the Covenant was placed in the temple built by Solomon there was nothing inside the Ark except for the two stone tablets of the testimony/covenant. However, Hebrews 9:1-4 says the Ark contained the two stone tablets (the terms of the covenant), Aaron's rod (or staff) and the gold jar containing manna. What happened to Aaron's budding staff and the gold jar of manna? Were they lost or were they stolen? And why does the writer of Hebrews mention them?

In the Old Testament, we can see several places that portray God as the most gracious and the most merciful. However, when God accompanied the Israelites to their promised land, he said that he would destroy the seven nations of that area (Canaanites, Hittites, Amorites, Hivites, and Jebusites) so that the Israelites could take their place. Why does God love the Israelites so much that he can also show his mercy and love to all the other nations and people he created? Are only Israelites entitled to his love, and not modern-day Christians who follow the teachings of Jesus Christ? If not, then why did Jesus say he came to fulfill the laws of Moses? (In Matthew 5:17, Jesus says, "Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.") Are other people not worthy of God's love?

I've heard a lot of religious chatter concerning what exact "sea" was parted by God to allow Moses and the Israelites to cross out of Egypt. Seems productions by the History Channel and other such sources have made statements about it but they also talked about the Mayan end of the world ideas. I know my bible says "Red Sea" but I've heard that could be a mistranslation. I was just wondering if there was any solid evidence to support either location? Such as archaeological findings or other sources. > "18 So God led the people around by way of the wilderness of the Red > Sea." -Exodus 13:18

This was originally part of [this question](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/1478/do-we-have-free-will-or-is-it-an-illusion) However, it's really a separate line of logic (and therefore a different question, imo). If others prefer, I can remerge this into the original. ----- God is omniscient. He truly, literally knows everything. God knows whether or not I will sin. God can (and does) direct certain people to prevent them from choosing one way or another. [Exodus 4:21 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus%204:21&version=NIV) >The LORD said to Moses, “When you return to Egypt, see that you perform before Pharaoh all the wonders I have given you the power to do. But I will harden his heart so that he will not let the people go. Clearly, this is an instance where God stepped in and prevent Pharaoh from making the decision. Since he controls decisions and knows what decisions I will make, do I truly have free will? Or do I only have free will in the inconsequential things (which isn't really free will, after all)?

Do we have a good idea as to which Pharaoh(s) were around during the time of Moses' life? What internal and external evidence exists to back up those claims? Do any Christian traditions attach any significance to correlating the events of Moses' life to the reign of a specific Pharaoh? The movie *The Prince of Egypt * mentions Ramses as the name of Moses' adoptive mother's son (and the future Pharaoh, both when Moses kills the Egyptian at 40 and when he returns to Egypt when he is 80), but I don't know what the basis is for this claim.

*Edit* > "This question is similar to: Are the words that Jesus spoke the > Logos?. If you believe it’s different, please edit the question, make > it clear how it’s different and/or how the answers on that question > are not helpful for your problem."* This isn't the same. The answer is inadequate with no "scriptural" basis, explanation for Exodus 3:15, and is based off of sheer conjecture. ---------- Greetings and peace be with you. I hope this isn't too controversial, for all I care about is the truth. I was an atheist for over 20+ years who "converted" just 3 years ago. Not seeing "jesus" in the original Greek writings, and the nomina sacra being used in the Codex Sinaiticus and Vaticanus instead of "ΙΗΣΟΥΣ" led me to a deeper study. It goes from "IY"(Nomina Sacra), "ΙΗΣΟΥΣ/Ἰησοῦς", "Iesus", and then to "Jesus". But what really matters is The Word itself. What does the Word say? John 1:1 > In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word > was God. He was with God in the beginning. Through Him all things were > made, and without Him nothing was made that has been made. 4 In Him was > life, and that life was the light of men. "Word" is from the Greek word "Logos", that is normally translated as "Word", but can also be as "Speech". HE was Elohim(God) and with Elohim from the beginning. The Son was the first "born" over all creation, meaning HE was not "created".(Colossians 1:15) Through Him all things were made, and without Him nothing was made that has been made. HE was called "The Author of Life".(Acts 3:15) HE even calls HIMSELF "the Originator of God’s creation".(Revelation 3:14) Paul even says HE was, "Given The Name above all Names". We are told that YHWH is the Most High over all, for David said, "For You, O YHWH, are Most High over all the earth; You are exalted far above all gods."(Psalm 97:9), as just one example. HE is also "The Prophet" who was told to come as Israel's mediator just like Moses.(Deuteronomy 18:15-19, Acts 7:37) We see that YHWH created the Heaven and Earth by HIS Voice... The "Logos", or the Hebrew equivalent "Dabar". Psalm 148:5 > Let them praise the name of YHWH, for He gave the command and they > were created. Genesis 1:3 > And Elohim(God) said, “Let there be light,” and there was light. So according the the writings(scripture) The Son is the literal Voice of Elohim(God). Who was born, not created, meaning the first thing The Father did was speak. Then, everything made through that Voice(The Son). The question is wouldn't that mean HE, The Son, told Moses HIS Name in Exodus 3:15? Can we now take John 5:43, and John 17:11-12 literal? Exodus 3:15 - Literal Standard Version > And God says again to Moses, “Thus you say to the sons of Israel: > YHWH, God of your fathers, God of Abraham, God of Isaac, and God of > Jacob, has sent me to you; this [is] My Name for all time, and this > [is] My memorial, to generation [and] generation. John 5:46 > If you had believed Moses, you would believe Me, because he wrote > about Me.

We see God determining the name of some before they are born, like in the case of Jesus (Matthew 1:21) and John the Baptist (Luke 1:13). As for persons chosen for a specific mission, God changes their name, for instance: from Abram to Abraham (Gen 17:5). However, in the case of Moses whose name (literally meaning 'drawn out of water', Exodus 2:10) was chosen by his adoptive mother namely, daughter of the Pharaoh, God continues to call him by his original name (Exodus 3:4). Moses, inspite of having fled as a young man after killing an Egyptian, is sent back at the age of 80 years to the Pharaoh to negotiate for the release of Israel. Carrying on with his Egyptian name would put him in trouble. In spite of such a prospect, we do not see God giving Moses a new name. **What according to scholars, could be the reason for that?**

I've heard from multiple sources that there isn't even the slightest of (extra-biblical) evidence of the Exodus story or even evidence for the presence of Israelites in Egypt. If this is true, why is this and how do Christians get over this lack of evidence? If this isn't necessarily true, what extra-biblical evidence is there of Israelites being enslaved, escaping, and wandering in the desert for 40 years?

Does the Bible tell why God gave the Ten Commandments to his people Israel, as depicted in book of Exodus? Does the Bible tell us what was the reason why God gave the Ten Commandments?

Some might question it that this kind of colossal story would be able to pass on accurately via oral tradition: for example older men telling this story to others among his own tribe Beside the fire. My original intent was to ask that how is it possible that exodus story could be passed on to the next generation so accurately? Some might say that exodus story is a myth, because no-one can pass on this story so accurately as it is written in the Bible.

> *1 Kings 8:9 (NIV)* There was ***nothing*** in the ark ***except*** the > ***two stone tablets*** that Moses had placed in it at Horeb, where the Lord made a covenant with the Israelites after they came out of > Egypt. > > *Hebrews 9:3-4 (NIV)* Behind the second curtain was a room called the > Most Holy Place, which had the golden altar of incense and the > gold-covered ark of the covenant. This ark ***contained*** the gold > jar of ***manna***, Aaron’s ***staff*** that had budded, and the > ***stone tablets*** of the covenant. 1 Kings 8:9 says that inside the Ark of the Covenant there was only the two stone tablets of Moses. But Hebrews 9:3-4 mentions three things, the gold jar of manna, Aaron’s staff that had budded, and the stone tablets of the covenant. Keeping in mind that the Ark of the Covenant was no more during the time of Jesus, the writer of Hebrews simply recalled from the Torah or from tradition about the contents of the Ark. In fact, even the writer never saw the Ark with his own eyes, let alone what was inside. Regarding the pot of manna, > *Exodus 16:33-34 (KJV)* And Moses said unto Aaron, Take a pot, and put > an omer full of manna therein, and lay it up ***before the Lord***, to > be kept for your generations. As the Lord commanded Moses, so Aaron > laid it up ***before the Testimony***, to be kept. This verse only says "before the Lord/Testimony" and not *inside* the Ark. Regarding the staff of Aaron, > *Numbers 17:10 (NIV)* The Lord said to Moses, “Put back Aaron’s staff > ***in front of the ark of the covenant*** law, to be kept as a sign to the rebellious. This will put an end to their grumbling against me, so > that they will not die.” This verse also says that the staff of Aaron was placed in front of the Ark. **Questions:** 1. Do these verses from the Old Testament contradict the Epistle to the Hebrews? 2. What exactly was kept inside the Ark of the Covenant?

We read in Ex 4:10-15 (KJV): > And Moses said unto the Lord, O my Lord, I am not eloquent, neither heretofore, nor since thou hast spoken unto thy servant: but I am slow of speech, and of a slow tongue. And the Lord said unto him, Who hath made man's mouth? or who maketh the dumb, or deaf, or the seeing, or the blind? have not I the Lord? Now therefore go, and I will be with thy mouth, and teach thee what thou shalt say.And he said, O my Lord, send, I pray thee, by the hand of him whom thou wilt send. And the anger of the Lord was kindled against Moses, and he said, Is not Aaron the Levite thy brother? I know that he can speak well. And also, behold, he cometh forth to meet thee: and when he seeth thee, he will be glad in his heart. And thou shalt speak unto him, and put words in his mouth: and I will be with thy mouth, and with his mouth, and will teach you what ye shall do. Later we see Aaron always accompanying Moses except on a few occasions like the receipt of the Commandments. God could have easily removed Moses' deficiency on Day One, but ordained that it stays. The fact that Moses was instrumental in the successful redemption of Israel from Egypt proves that his speech deficiency did help him. My question is: What was the value addition made by Moses' speech deficiency to his leadership?

Many of the plagues God sent upon the Egyptians involved crazy miracles like turning the Nile into blood or turning sand into gnats. Are there any interpretations that say that the final curse (death of the firstborn) involved the firstborn sons of Egypt being transformed into cats? Is it possible to interpret the Hebrew verb "to slay" as "to turn into an animal"? It's not inconsistent with the rest of the plagues of Egypt, and the Egyptians were known for worshipping cats after all...

This is a question particularly for those who believe, based on Biblical data in the New Testament, that the Sabbath is no longer binding for New Covenant Christians since Jesus has fulfilled the Law and has become our rest. Particularly for those of you who hold this theological view (please neglect to answer if you don't hold this view, as the question will not apply to you) how do you interpret Exodus 20:11 in particular, and reconcile it with your theology? I will explain what I mean, and then conclude with my concrete question at the bottom. After the command to observe the Sabbath, Exodus 20:11 in the ESV says: "For in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that is in them, and rested on the seventh day. Therefore the Lord blessed the Sabbath day and made it holy." This verse begins with the word "for," which can also be translated "because." In other words, it seems God is grounding to the Israelites his command to observe the Sabbath in his creation pattern. Am I missing something? Grammatically, it seems to me God is effectively saying, "because" I myself rested on the 7th day after creation, you therefore are to rest too. Although this is a command in the Old Covenant, under which New Covenant Christians are no longer bound, the grounding in Creation (and the facts of Creation never change, unlike the binding and fulfillment of covenants) could be seen as making this commandment in particular binding on everyone, at all times, forever, even though it is an Old Covenant law. **The fact of God resting on the 7th day will never change, and since this is his grounds for the commandment to observe the Sabbath in Exodus 20, it almost seems as if the Sabbath commandment should be binding on his people, including New Covenant Christians forever.** **Question:** In light of your conviction that the Law is no longer binding on New Covenant Believers, how should we make sense of Exodus 20:11 in particular? I am asking specifically how to reconcile this verse with all the Scriptural data, and not a vague and general debate on Sabbath-keeping. Full disclosure, personally, all my life I believed the Sabbath did not apply to Christians because of all the data in the New Testament on how to view the Law. But I am so lost on how to reconcile my current theology together with a coherent theology from Exodus 20:11.

So I've been reading through Exodus a lot lately, and one of the things that stood out to me was the death of the firstborn of the animals during the final plague / strike. Now, the firstborn of the Hebrew people were redeemed by the blood of the year-old sheep & goats that was placed upon the door frame of their houses. However, there is no instruction to either take their animals into their homes or else to place blood along the enclosures for their animals (stables / barns / etc). So then, by what sign did the Destroyer know not to destroy them? What is the spiritual significance of this, if any? Let me know your thoughts :)

The Jehovah's witness' version of the bible the NWT translates these verses as: >58 Jesus said to them: “Most truly I say to you, before Abraham came into existence, **I have been**.” 59 So they picked up stones to throw at him, but Jesus hid and went out of the temple. (emphasis added) KJV,ESV,NIV,NRSV,NASB all translate the bold section in v58 as "**I am**", (source ) which on the surface, seems to be a direct reference to the way God revealed himself to Moses at the burning bush: >13 Moses said to God, “Suppose I go to the Israelites and say to them, ‘The God of your fathers has sent me to you,’ and they ask me, ‘What is his name?’ Then what shall I tell them?” 14 God said to Moses, “**I am who I am**. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: ‘**I am** has sent me to you.’” - Ex 3:14-15 NIV (emphasis added, cf. v14 in different versions ) As such, it would seem logical for the Jews to want to stone Jesus for (in their eyes) blasphemy. This Q&A on the biblical hermeneutics site addresses which translation of those particular words is preferable, so I don't wish to re-hash that ground, but to ask, given the sense imparted by the following verse (i.e. that the Jews regarded what Jesus was saying as blasphemous) how can it be logically maintained that Jesus was not referencing the name (or title, or description - that particular distinction should be irrelevant) of God as revealed to Moses at the burning bush and applying it to himself?

The *Ten Commandments* is often shown as a nice list with ten short statements, whereas in the Bible it exists as a long block of text in Exodus 20:2–17 and Deuteronomy 5:6–21. For reference: > *Exodus 20:2-17 (HCSB)* > > 2 I am the LORD your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the place of slavery. > > 3 Do not have other gods besides Me. > > 4 Do not make an idol for yourself, whether in the shape of anything in the heavens above or on the earth below or in the waters under the earth. 5 You must not bow down to them or worship them; for I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the fathers' sin, to the third and fourth [generations] of those who hate Me, 6 but showing faithful love to a thousand [generations] of those who love Me and keep My commands. > > 7 Do not misuse the name of the LORD your God, because the LORD will punish anyone who misuses His name. > > 8 Remember to dedicate the Sabbath day: 9 You are to labor six days and do all your work, 10 but the seventh day is a Sabbath to the LORD your God. You must not do any work—you, your son or daughter, your male or female slave, your livestock, or the foreigner who is within your gates. 11 For the LORD made the heavens and the earth, the sea, and everything in them in six days; then He rested on the seventh day. Therefore the LORD blessed the Sabbath day and declared it holy. > > 12 Honor your father and your mother so that you may have a long life in the land that the LORD your God is giving you. > > 13 Do not murder. > > 14 Do not commit adultery. > > 15 Do not steal. > > 16 Do not give false testimony against your neighbor. > > 17 Do not covet your neighbor's house. Do not covet your neighbor's wife, his male or female slave, his ox or donkey, or anything that belongs to your neighbor. If I were given the above text **without paragraphs nor verse markers** (which are a later addition), I'd have trouble spotting how it should be divided to exactly ten commandments. This might be a reason that there are multiple "competing" divisions. The different divisions that I know of are (adapted from a better table on Wikipedia ): | | A | B | C | |-|:-:|:-:|:-:| | I am the Lord your God | pre | 1 | 1 | | You shall have no other gods before me | 1 | 1 | 1 | | You shall not make for yourself an idol | 2 | 2 | 1 | | Do not take the name of the Lord in vain | 3 | 3 | 2 | | Remember the Sabbath and keep it holy | 4 | 4 | 3 | | Honor your father and mother | 5 | 5 | 4 | | You shall not murder | 6 | 6 | 5 | | You shall not commit adultery | 7 | 7 | 6 | | You shall not steal | 8 | 8 | 7 | | You shall not bear false witness against your neighbor | 9 | 9 | 8 | | You shall not covet your neighbor's wife | 10 | 10 | 9 | | You shall not covet anything that belongs to your neighbor | 10 | 10 | 10 | For fun, see if you know which is used by whom! The answer is below, mouse-over to see it: >! **A**: Anglican, Reformed *(pre = preface)*
>! **B**: Orthodox; Jewish (Talmudic)
>! **C**: Catholic, Lutheran
>! As far as I know, almost all other denominations use A or B. What are the reasonings for these different divisions? Especially since the first division didn't stick, I'm quite sure the differences can't be arbitrary.

From moral justification view, this verse about slavery is concerning to me, not really about the slavery, it's about the wife and children of a few slave that are left behind when he's freed. It states this in the verse >If his master gave him a wife while he was a slave and they had sons or daughters, then only the man will be free in the seventh year, but his wife and children will still belong to his master. [ ‭Exodus 21:4 NLT‬] My questions are: 1. Would the kids continue as slaves for the master? 2. When the wife needs her conjugal rights, what should happen?