I think everyone knows that the name Jesus is Greek, but why don’t Jehovah’s Witnesses use his Hebrew name, which is closer to *Joshua* than to *Jesus*?

Growing up having a Christian background, I was taught to use God/Jesus to refer to the Creator and Son. Recently, I've come across some information stating that our Creator has a Name and that we should use it, the name referring to Yahuah/Yahsuah, which would be in original Hebrew. Given that Jesus was a Jew and the original text was written in ancient Hebrew, would it be fair to say that instead of the more commonly accepted Greek version of His Name, that should we use the Hebrew versions instead? Also, if I'm misunderstanding anything in my post, I'm all ears, I'm just trying to figure out if we've been generalizing the Name and sort of not receiving the full effect of being able to state our Creators name and benefit from praising Him in that way. This, along with knowing that throughout history, things can get sort of lost in translation as we switch from languages. On top of the knowing that devil will do whatever it takes to twist and take the opposite approach of whatever the Creator does. > In the Bible, God declares: >> I am Jehovah. That is my name; I give my glory to no one else. >> Isaiah 42:8 - NWT > “Jehovah” is an English translation of the four Hebrew consonants YHWH, which constitute the divine name. That name appears some 7,000 times in the Hebrew Scriptures. It is used more often than any title, such as “God,” “Almighty,” or “Lord,” and more frequently than any other name, such as Abraham, Moses, or David`

I'm wondering where the doctrine of the trinity comes from, and I've only found that it stems from both Hellenistic philosophy (Platonism through Philo and Origen) and Babylonian polytheism (Nimrod, Semiramis, and Tammuz). It doesn't make sense for a triune god to be monotheistic. Has anyone else ever questioned its origins and come to a different understanding? Please let me know. I am specifically looking for instances of it in the Tanakh. (I am not looking for verses that have scribal errors)

We see in Acts 11:24-26 (NRSVCE): "For he was a good man, full of the Holy Spirit and of faith. And a great many people were brought to the Lord. Then Barnabas went to Tarsus to look for Saul, and when he had found him, he brought him to Antioch. So it was that for an entire year they met with the church and taught a great many people, and it was in Antioch that the disciples were first called “Christians.” I wish to know how the name Christians used for followers of Jesus stuck . Antioch was a part of ancient Greece, and the word Christian had its origin in Greek word Christos meaning the Saviour, known as Messiah in Hebrew. That St. Luke wrote the Gospel and Acts of the Apostles in Greek, may also have contributed to the firming up of the name Christian. But then, we see Jesus being addressed as The Nazarene all through the Gospels and the Acts. It is therefore, strange that His disciples were not called Nazarenes by the Jews who were more comfortable with Hebrew language than with Greek. My question therefore is: Were the early Christians called by some other name in languages other than Greek? If they were, why did those names become defunct? PS: In southern India, Christians in the good old days called themselves as Nasrani, a name derived from the Syrian word for Nazarene.

When is money first mentioned in Holy Scriptures? And what is the Hebrew word for it? cf. my previous question: "Is money a consequence of Original Sin? "

It is a polemical rabbinic translation of the entire New Testament, allegedly in an uneven and faulty Hebrew, and with a strong anti-Christian bias.

I was thinking about YHWH today and realized an early name for God might have been the sound of breathing as God breathed life into us, then imagined how you might write that and realized YHWH, if pronounced, is an onomatopoeia of the sound you make when you breath. If I was tasked with writing the word for the sound of breath, in English, it would likely come out something like 'heehoo' or something similar—perhaps with the Hebrew alphabet 'YHWH' (יהוה) is a more probable attempt. Is it possible that YHWH could be the full name intended, and it on purpose has no vowels; or is there strong evidence that it is an actual word, not an onomatopoeia, and vowels were omitted for some other purpose (I think I was told that once). Curious to learn more! Edit: I asked this about 5 years ago, since then this idea has apparently gained a lot of movement to the point where this thread is getting activity again. I also noticed Jesus' name (Yeshua) can be pronounced this same way YH•WH can be pronounced as breath—but with a “SH” noise added in the middle. YH•SH•WH

**Exodus 31:17 ESV: > It is a sign forever between me and the people of Israel that in six > days the Lord made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he rested > and was refreshed. Isaiah 40:28 ESV: > Have you not known? Have you not heard? The Lord is the everlasting > God, the Creator of the ends of the earth. He does not faint or grow weary; > his understanding is unsearchable. I would like to preface this by saying I am not asking the meaning of "rest" I understand that means to cease. Rather I am asking about the full phrase "he rested and was refreshed". That seems like God was refreshed **as a result** of ceasing creating, but that would imply that God was weary during creation if **ceasing work** made him refreshed. Ive seen answers like "refreshed" as in taking pleasure, but that is an expression in english, **how do we know** that expression exists in ancient Hebrew as well? Similarly I have seen use of Genesis 1:31 as evidence, yet Genesis 1:31 refers to the sixth day, while Genesis 31:17 refers to the seventh day. I bolded the "how" here because I am satisfied with proof for an interpretation. Ex: If it is an anthropomorphism, how do we know it is that and not a contradiction? I understand that the hebrew word for refresh that was used means "to take breath", but there are other places where that word is used to signify regaining energy from weariness, (Exodus 23:12 and 2 Samuel 16:14). **What differentiates** this usage in Exodus 31:17 from the other verses and what makes Exodus 31:17 not mean that God was refreshed **as a result** of his cessation of work (Because how can you be refreshed from stopping work if the work did not make you tired).

Is **Hebron** referred to **Hebrew**? In **Genesis 39:17** → *The Hebrew Servant* → Here Joseph is called as a Hebrew. So this is my understanding that → Joseph's great grandfather Abraham was from Hebron → referred to Hebrews → often used with Israelites. It's usually refers to the descents of Abraham. **Hebrew** is → geographical reference whereas **Israelite** is → lineage reference Please correct me if I am wrong.

Thomas said, "O Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός μου" (koine Greek), "My Lord and my God" (English). What would he have said in Aramaic (Hebrew?) in John 20:28? Would it relate to Adonai and Yahweh?

I am currently working on a religious drama and outsmarted myself. I come to you for help. Growing up Jewish, I did not hear the term Yahweh until I was 14 in Western Civilization. "Well, you know, right? It's, you know, God." And my reply, "I have no idea what you're talking about, and seriously, there isn't even a *w* in Hebrew so try again." Nor in Ancient Greek! Although, some would say the Hebrew letter *vav* can behave like a *w*. Next, my Torah portion included Exodus 3:14 (and I gotta tell you, reading off an animal skin scroll is cool!). It says *Eh-yeh asher Eh-yeh*. Even among Jews, there is some controversy because of limitations within Hebrew of future tense. However, "I shall be what I shall be" is without fault as an English translation of the Hebrew. Certainly the Christian Bible "I am who [what] I am" is a very different statement. The Torah has been meticulously transcribed letter by letter for 2600 years So I asked a (Conservative) rabbi. We agreed the line from Exodus 3:14 contained neither a *Yah* nor a *weh*. "So, Rabbi, where does this word come from?" She says, "Well it really has nothing to do with Exodus 3:14. Here read this." And I read, "*Barukh atah Adonai--*" "You can stop there," she says. "The third word does not state 'Adonai.' Why do you say that?" And my response is "Because that [what I read] is how we spell our Lord's name on paper--probably to prevent us from being insulting." And she says "And what does it actually read?" My Hebrew is not so great but I manage "*Yeh-vah?*" She says, "That's the best I can do." Although I might benefit from seeing a Protestant minister, I wound up with a visit at a nearby Catholic Church. Although we came to no further conclusion on the matter, we agreed that Yeshua was an awfully nice Hebrew name. I've read quite a bit over the years on the subject. Most of the commentary is either too mystical or too one-sided to be useful to my project or me. Specifically, how did "Yahweh" become a word of such prominence in Western literature and lexicon? I've redacted the latter part of my question, and thank you for your information thus far. For clarification, I'll add: YHVH, or whatever you want to call it, is little more than a placeholder in modern Hebrew prayers; it is simply not said, and has been further redacted to YY. I've seen it a million times, but I just say Lord ("Adonai"). The idea that the placeholder held any real significance was lost on me until much later in life. I do not know what was spoken in biblical times, but that doesn't matter. The discussion of Jehovah below is helpful, but as long as I'm still open for business ... Edit: I recently asked an Orthodox rabbi. Orthodox Judaism tends to be more mystical, if you will (Chabad.org). The response: "It is actually one of many names for the Divine. ... It was not used in general prayers during the times of the Temple [Kings]. ... It is unknown what was spoken during the time of Moses."

What is the word used for "devil" in Mel Gibson's movie "The Passion of the Christ" during the scene where Christ is interrogated by the Sanhedrin? The word "devil" appears in the English subtitles three times in this scene as a couple of characters give testimony against Christ. It sounds to me like they're saying "sha-dai-ah." When I search for what I'm hearing I find El Shaddai , which is the Hebrew word for "God Almighty," not "devil." I know that the dialog of this film is in Aramaic, Hebrew, and Latin. I can distinguish the Latin dialog from the rest, but I can't distinguish between the Aramaic and Hebrew. I think that Hebrew is used during the Sanhedrin scene.

This Q is a follow-up to one I recently asked in Hermeneutics – link - https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/80776/does-the-hebrew-of-deuteronomy-312-indicate-that-moses-date-of-death-was-exact/80821#80821 It appears from one answer given there that there is an interesting development of this idea, based on dates of death and birth of significant characters in the Hebrew scriptures, but as Hermeneutics is not for topics, but for examination of biblical texts, my Q there was confined to the text of Deuteronomy 31:2. > "And [Moses] said to them, I am an hundred and twenty years old this > day..." (A. Now, having obtained the answer to that ***(“No, the Hebrew of that text does not indicate that Moses’ date of death was exactly the same as his date of birth, 120 years later”)***, **I wish to explore the topic of how the view regarding "the integral age of the righteous" developed.**

There seem to be many Hebrew translations of the New Testament, both Classical and Modern. However, most of these seem to be based on some form of the Koine Greek New Testament (whether it be the Textus receptus, or the majority text, or one of the critical editions) I was wondering if any (specifically Classical) Hebrew translations of the New Testament, in whole or in part, have been made based on other ancient versions (for example, the Peshitta or the Vulgate) To clarify, 1. Yes, I am aware that the Vulgate and other ancient versions were translated from Koine Greek but are different from any edition of the Greek New Testament available today, since they were probably based on Greek manuscripts that are now lost 2. Yes, I am aware that the general consensus is that the Peshitta was translated from Greek to Aramaic, although a minority of authors (like George Lamsa) have attempted to argue that the reverse is true 3. Yes, I am aware that there are other ancient translations besides the Vulgate and the Peshitta. I just gave these 2 as examples, and would really be interested in ANY Classical Hebrew translation of the New Testament (or part thereof) based on a non-Greek ancient version

I noticed that in German (Luther's translation) it says "Du sollst nicht" for "thou shall not." To me, this sounds more like "thou should not," which makes more sense to me, because if the Almighty says "thou will not" or even "thou may not" it stands to reason that to do so would be impossible. Saying "thou should not" makes more sense to me because it implies that you have the ability to disobey. I guess I am sort of asking for a short lesson on ancient Hebrew grammar of, as well as the original Hebrew (and English transliteration) of "Thou shalt not" as it is used in the ten commandments. I apologize if this is off-topic. I appreciate if anyone could answer or direct me to a good link.

Can anyone provide a source that says to the effect that Christianity and Judaism originate from a religion that existed in Israel in the 1st millennium BC that called their God something that in English might have sounded like Yahweh? (I asked the same question on biblical hermeneutics [here](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/74832/christian-origins-reference-request) , but was closed as off topic)

From what I understand, the Hebrew title “בְּמִדְבַּר” of the Book of Numbers literally translates to “In the Wilderness”. Why is it called Numbers instead?

What's the difference between these two words other than obviously the spelling. I've seen some songs write Alleluia which sounds very similar to Hallelujah when sung.

In the Hebrew Aleppo, Leningrad And Cairo codices, there is a separation mark between Yahweh and Our Righteousness. This is how it looks: ״יהוה | צדקנו״, Separating God’s name from Our Righteousness. But, there are some English versions that say “The Lord Our Righteousness”, but I don’t know why. There is a Hebrew version online that says “the LORD Our Righteousness”, but the website says it’s based on the Leningrad codex, but the Leningrad codex has the separation mark. There is another version which is based on the Aleppo codex and “The manuscripts close to it”, and it also does not have the separation mark, but if we go to the Aleppo codex online, I think it has it. What is true and how? “The LORD will call him ‘Our Righteousness’” or “He shall be called: the LORD our Righteousness”?

For Strong's Hebrew number 7854 (Satan) the Brown-Driver-Briggs' notes give these meanings: > (1) adversary, one who withstands > > (1a) adversary (in general — personal or national) > > (2) superhuman adversary > > (2a) Satan (as noun proper) And Strong gives us: > From H7853; an opponent; especially (with the article prefixed) Satan, > the arch enemy of good: - adversary, Satan, withstand. Whereas SH7834 has: > A primitive root; to attack, (figuratively) accuse: - (be an) > adversary, resist. The first meaning of SH7835 seems to agree with the root form. The second sticks out as quite a bit different. Can anyone explain where this second meaning (superhuman adversary & proper noun) comes from (ideally with sources I can go and look at) and from what point in time this second meaning might have been contemporarily understood?