Do Greek speaking Christians still use the Septuagint and original New Testament text? Or do they have a "modern Greek translation"? I ask because the New Testament is 2000 years old, presumably the Greek language has changed and evolved a lot in that time and so the original NT might not even be understandable to a modern Greek speaker. I'm interested in what Greek speaking Christians use in general (Catholics, Orthodox, Protestant), but I'm also very interested in the Greek Orthodox church in particular. I'm curious what version of the scriptures they draw upon in their liturgy: the originals? or a modern paraphrase/translation?

Did arabic Christians and Jews use the word Allah to refer to god before Islam came about? Are there any texts predating Islam that prove this

Is it possible to know the language that Adam and Eve spoke? I am not interested in "how did Adam and then Eve, learned to speak" , but rather is it possible to know the language that was spoken by Adam and Eve from an historical viewpoint or at least how close we can get to an original source? We see in the Book of Genesis that the whole world spoke one tongue prior to the destruction of the Tower of Babel: >The Tower of Babel > Genesis 11:1-9 Now the whole world had one language and a common speech. 2 As people moved eastward, they found a plain in Shinar and settled there. > 3 They said to each other, “Come, let’s make bricks and bake them thoroughly.” They used brick instead of stone, and tar for mortar. 4 Then they said, “Come, let us build ourselves a city, with a tower that reaches to the heavens, so that we may make a name for ourselves; otherwise we will be scattered over the face of the whole earth.” > 5 But the Lord came down to see the city and the tower the people were building. 6 The Lord said, “If as one people speaking the same language they have begun to do this, then nothing they plan to do will be impossible for them. 7 Come, let us go down and confuse their language so they will not understand each other.” >8 So the Lord scattered them from there over all the earth, and they stopped building the city. 9 That is why it was called Babel—because there the Lord confused the language of the whole world. From there the Lord scattered them over the face of the whole earth. Have any Christian scholars or mystics have any possible hints as to what Adam’s language actually may have looked like?

Many Christians (I think especially in Reformed and Fundamentalist circles though I might be mistaken) do not use the expression, "Oh my God!" to express shock or surprise due to it being perceived as a violation of the 2nd commandment. In Chinese, people sometimes use the phrase 我的天哪 or 我的天 in the same context. This phrase actually comes to Chinese by translating the English phrase, but instead of "God" the Chinese word 天 (tian) means "heaven". So 我的天哪 could literally be translated "my heaven ah!" Thus, it is not literally using the title "God" unlike the English phrase. However, I can think of two potential reasons Chinese Christians might still object to 我的天哪: 1. It is translated from a taboo English phrase. 2. Traditionally, 天 in Chinese is often used in the sense of an impersonal divine Providence, such as in the phrase "mandate of heaven" (天命) for the legitimate right of a ruler to rule. In this sense, even though 天 typically means heaven it could also be understood as a title for God. **I'm wondering if any Christians from those traditions who object to "oh my God" on grounds of the 2nd commandment have commented on the permissibility or lack thereof of 我的天哪.** To be clear, I am asking about this phrase's evaluation with regards to the 2nd commandment specifically. For a parallel example, I don't use "oh my God" personally, but not due to the 2nd commandment specifically; rather I avoid it because I see it as irreverent.

I have heard it taught in several places that Matthew was originally written in Hebrew and its intended audience was the Jews (which would help explain why it seems a bit more vague on key Christian concepts). But recently I have been told that there are no Hebrew manuscripts of this text. I assume at least that the person who told me this meant that there are no Hebrew manuscripts that outdate the Greek ones. So in what language was Matthew written?

Young-Earth Creationists, as far as I understand it, believe that Proto-Indo-European was one of the languages spoken immediately after the Tower of Babel, that is, around 2200 BC. Obviously, you need to reject glottochronology for that, as glottochronology dates Proto-Celtic to 3200 BC, and Proto-Indo-European is therefore dated way earlier, but not every linguist accepts glottochronology (which is based on the assumption that words on the Swadesh List are replaced at a constant rate). However, as far as I understand it, all historical linguists agree that Proto-Afro-Asiatic was spoken way earlier than Proto-Indo-European. According to mainstream linguistics, Proto-Afro-Asiatic was spoken somewhere between 16'000 BC and 10'000 BC. The earliest attested Afro-Asiatic languages (Egyptian and Akkadian) were attested very early and they were not closely related. One of the earliest Egyptian writings is the Narmer Palette, dated, by the mainstream history, to around 3'100 BC. And the earliest Akkadian inscriptions are dated to 2'400 BC. And they were not closely related languages. Proto-Afro-Asiatic had to be spoken thousands of years before that. Now, Young-Earth Creationists dispute such early datings of the inscriptions. Young-Earth Creationists believe that the Narmer Palette dates to around 2'000 BC. I don't know what they think about the earliest Akkadian inscriptions. But, either way, since Akkadian and Egyptian were obviously not closely related languages, Proto-Afro-Asiatic had to be spoken thousands of years before those earliest inscriptions. So, do the Young-Earth-Creationists believe that Proto-Afro-Asiatic language existed? And if so, when?

Regardless of the historicity of the account, the people who wrote it down, edited it, listened to the story, and edited again, must have realized some people would be confused by the characters simply giving up after they had overcome much more physically demanding hurdles. The authors and the audience must have had this literary sensitivity. This raises the question: _Why was this not adressed? Why was this not commented on? Why did the author of the story of the Tower of Babel did not consider, or did not address, or glossed over the possibility of some of his characters trying to learn the other's language to continue the enterprise?_

It has been asserted that the author of the Chinese alphabet could very well been knowledgeable of the accounts in Genesis 1-11--those that occurred prior to the division of peoples and languages at Babel. It is stated that many Chinese characters intrinsically reflect the peculiarities of the Genesis account. What is the nature of these characters? What is the evidence that would suggest that the author of the Chinese script was, in fact, familiar with the Genesis account? [See this as an example](https://answersingenesis.org/genesis/chinese-characters-and-genesis/)

Latter-day Saints, like many Christians, are encouraged to not use phrases like "Oh my God!" because they are seen as violations of the commandment to not take the name of God "in vain." However, in some languages (e.g. Arabic), God's name appears frequently in common phrases and is not considered offensive by most. Has an LDS leader ever commented on the application of this commandment in other cultural contexts? Has an exception ever been made for cultures, like Arab culture, where it is so common? (I am asking this in an LDS context specifically, although I understand this issue is applicable more broadly as well.)

According to [this post](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/8456/what-language-did-jesus-speak) : >Both Aramaic and Hebrew were in use in the Land at the time of Jesus. However, while we cannot say one predominated, we can say that Mishnaic Hebrew was very much a living language used by people of all walks of life in Judea and Galilee. So, maybe we are safe to assume that Jesus spoke these languages. Yet, Pontius Pilate was a Roman, who would have spoken Latin. Would he have been able to speak Hebrew? And as such, in the Gospels' account of Pilate's encounter with Jesus, did they speak in Hebrew? Is there any evidence, or perhaps tradition on this?

Latin is the official language of the Catholic Church. And, after Croatia got independent in the early 1990s, the Catholic Church has lobbied the Croatian government to introduce Latin as an obligatory subject in most Croatian high-schools for two years (grade 9 and grade 10). So, in Croatia, young Catholics (and around 80% of Croatians are Catholics) tend to know some Latin.
I was wondering, how well do Catholics in other countries speak Latin? How is it in the USA?

A lot of things in today's culture have names with the word ***"damn"*** in them, e.g., the restaurant Hattie B's Hot Chicken has a menu option named "Damn Hot". I'm sure it was a sin for whoever came up with that name, but what about for the rest of us? Is it okay for Catholics to use those names when talking about those things, e.g., while ordering at that restaurant, or would that be sinful too? If the latter, then how should we refer to them?

The New Testament was originally written in Greek. But yet Roman Catholics held Mass in Latin for hundreds of years. What scriptural evidence, if any, caused Latin to be picked over Greek? Was any scriptural reasoning used to defend keeping the Mass in Latin for so long? What are the reasons?

I would like to know how to print out Jesus is God in Aramaic specifically the Aramaic Christ spoke.

Text: > “At this time Moses was born, and was well pleasing to God; and he was > brought up in his father’s house for three months. > > But when he was set out, Pharaoh’s daughter took him away and brought > him up as her own son. > > And **Moses** *was learned in all the* **wisdom of the Egyptians**, and was > mighty in words and deeds. > > “Now when he was forty years old, it came into his heart to visit his > brethren, the children of Israel.” ‭‭**Acts‬ ‭7‬:‭20‬-‭23‬** ‭**Q: How did Moses speak to the children of Israel & write the Torah if he was learned in all the ways of the Egyptians?** See also: John 5:45-47

I'm an Orthodox Christian and the tradition we believe says that Matthew and John (the Gospel writers) are the same as Matthew and John (two of the original 12 apostles). I know that scholars say that the Gospels were written at least 70-80 years after the Crucifixion, but I believe in the tradition. Also, the same scholars say that the Gospels were originally written in Greek; however, I couldn't find an answer for each scripture in particular. If we start from the premise that Matthew is the tax collector that Jesus saved and made an apostle and John is one of the other 12 apostles, that means that Matthew's Gospel was originally written in Aramaic (if we assume that the language spoken in the kingdom of Judah at that time was Aramaic, not Hebrew) or Old Hebrew (if the Aramaic thing is not true). Mark and Luke's Gospels, according to our tradition: Mark was Saint Peter's disciple and was from Levi's tribe, so he must have written originally in Old Hebrew. Tradition says that Luke was from Syria and knew Greek and Egyptian so he must have written his Gospel in Greek. Now, Paul's Epistles must have been written in many languages. He wrote the Epistle to Romans so that scripture must have been written in Latin if it was for the Romans, plus Paul was a Roman citizen so he probably knew Latin. He has a lot of Epistles to Greek cities (Corinth, Thessalonica, etc.) which must have been written in Greek. Also, he has a letter to Jews so he probably wrote this in Hebrew. **Question summary**: In what language was each book of the New Testament originally written according to The Holy Christian Tradition, not according to atheist scholars?

Did the Israelites learn many languages in Egypt and pass them down (including to one of these two spies)? Is it known how Rahab was able to communicate?

I am curious to know if Jesus was capable of communicating with everyone on the Earth back when He was living on the Earth. So, say for example, if a person from China had visited Israel back in 30 A.D. and he had met Jesus on a road there, would he and Jesus have been able to have a conversation in Chinese? Or say that there had been a Native American man who had been able to row across the Atlantic Ocean in a boat in 30 A.D. and he visited Israel. Would he and Jesus have been able to have a conversation using the man's Native American language? I'm not talking about them communicating via the Gift of Tongues, but communicating via the person's actual language. So, if there were people nearby to Jesus and the foreign person, they would have heard Jesus talking in the foreign person's language. When Jesus was living on the Earth, was He capable of communicating with all the people on the Earth?

It's very common to have a negative perception about cursing, saying swear words (i.e. the use of profanity), among all Christian groups. What is the biblical basis for not swearing?

**Amen** is a secular word of Greek and Hebrew origin, and is used to express solemn ratification (as of an expression of faith) or hearty approval (as of an assertion). The Church has been associating the word with prayers from the very beginning, and it finds universal use, albeit with slight variations in diction. One can also find typical circumstances in day-to-day conversation where amen could be used to mean confirmation of something. For instance, a boy can reply to the stern instruction of his father to finish his home-work by 9.00 p.m. by saying "amen" without disrespect to its traditional use. But he does not, for fear of getting reprimanded for misusing a prayer. My question therefore is: **Do the teachings of Catholic Church prohibit the use of *"amen"* for purposes other than prayer?**