If you read the question carefully I ask Intolerance in "Muslims" and not Islam. Islam is one of the most tolerant religions of all, but one thing that's oxymoron is intolerance in Muslim fanatics. I have had a hard time dealing with Muslim clergies and orthodoxy big time. There is aggression and intolerance in them which is hard to counter. I believe this can be one of the seeds of all the ills of Muslim brotherhood that we witness at various places. What is the reason it exists? Why are some of us so intolerant? Is their any historical or contemporary event/events responsible for it?

In Bengali culture, it is accustomed to give 'Shinni' (any food) to friends and family when one finishes recitation of whole Qur'an or when someone dies. Is there any Islamic reasoning behind this or it is wholly cultural, and if so is it bidah? **Question:** Is there any Islamic reasoning behind giving 'shinni' when someone completes recitation of the Qu'ran or when someone dies?

Nowruz is a Persian new year, but why do Shia all around world celebrate it. Here is how it is celebrated at my place. We prepare special nazr of Imam Ali. The contents of which are as below: - a bowl of water with rose water and put a rose in it - a fan made of palm/dates tree leaf - 7 varieties of fruits - sweets After the nazr. The water is put on the fan and the fan is waved in all the four corner of the house for barkat/divine grace. There is this specific time for the nazr. With minutes precision like 20th March 8:40 PM (IST) this year. People throw color on each other like Hindus do in their holi festival. From where does this all came from? **Note:** I am looking for its source from Quran or Hadith of Ahlul-bait.

Some people consider first thirteen days of safar as inauspicious and called them as TERA-TEZI. It there any hadith in support of this or it is just a superstition.

I'm reading Sura 12, the narrative on Joseph's life, and I don't think I quite understand the **historical context for why the women at the banquet cut their hands with a knife when they saw how handsome Joseph was?** Was that a cultural custom/expression? **I also don't understand why Potiphar's wife held the banquet in the first place, and what the function/purpose of it was?** Can someone help clarify this scene for me? Thanks!

Peace, Love, and Divine Blessings beloveds. In Torah/TaNaK/Christian-Old-Testament blood plays a huge and important role in the way of life and culture of the Israelite people. In Bereshith/Genesis 9:4-6 Noah and his household are given instructions on blood as it pertains to food and life (part of the Noahide Laws ): > 4 You must not, however, eat flesh with its life-blood in it. 5 But > for your own life-blood I will require a reckoning: I will require it > of every beast; of man, too, will I require a reckoning for human > life, of every man for that of his fellow man! 6 Whoever sheds the > blood of man, By man shall his blood be shed; For in His image Did God > make man. In Wayiqra/Leviticus 17:11 : > For the life of the flesh is in the blood, and I have assigned it to > you for making expiation for your lives upon the altar; it is the > blood, as life, that effects expiation. Including (but not limited to), used in the [confirmation of a covenant](https://www.sefaria.org.il/Exodus.24.8) , as part of the [dedication of the Israelite Priests/any](https://www.sefaria.org.il/Exodus.29.20) , as part of the [priestly service on Yom Kippur](https://www.sefaria.org.il/Leviticus.16.14) , and as part of the [purification of lepors](https://www.sefaria.org.il/Leviticus.14.14) . How is blood viewed and treated in the Islamic Faith? Does it have a spiritual significance? Was it used ritualistically/ceremoniously in any shape, way, or form? References from the Holy Quran, Hadith, Articles, commentary, and/or personal insight are welcomed. Thank you

I know that in many cultures it's normal, for women, to cover up your whole body when you want to swim indoors, outdoors or just want to use the bathtub. What I'm wondering about is if there's anything in the Quran, hadiths or the different judical houses in Islam that says that's how it's supposed to be?

In an arranged marriage setting, can we send girl's picture without head scarf to a potential suitor's mother/sister.. not knowing for sure if they will delete the photo if not interested. The family of the suitors have stated many times that they will come to the house for further talk if they like the girl.. which is acceptable in Islam as well. They have the right to see whom they are choosing for their son. If we do not send without hijab pics.. they do not reply and the matter gets closed.. many proposals are going because of this.. please elaborate on this. JazakAllahu khairan

*First off, I realize that in many Mulsim countries proselytize is contentious term. In many Muslim countries, for example, it is illegal for Christians to "proselytize," by which it is believed that non-Muslims are using incentives in order to convince Muslims to drop their faith. I considered using the term "Evangelize," but the root of that word is a specifically Christian word to mean "to announce the Good News." Finally, I considered asking "How does Islamic Missiology work?" but that too seemed a loaded term. So, here's how I would describe what I am looking for - Islam is clearly a growing religion. That implies that there exists a cadre of Muslims who would seek convince non-Muslims that they should become Muslims. I would suspect that like other religions, including Christianity, that means that some even feel compelled to leave the lands of their birth in order to promulgate the religion. From earlier questions, I have gathered that convincing one to become a Muslim does not necessarily entail suggesting to others that they read the Quran and then choose to follow its theology. From what I have gathered here, there seems to be a very deep level of traditional practices that are undertaken once one has become a Mulsim, but what I am trying to understand is the path by which a non-Muslim is enticed or mentored to start down that path in the first place. Again, in Christianity, for example, a person who feels called of God to become a missionary will typically leave for distant land, form relationships with locals, and then in the course of that relationship, typically suggest that the Bible addresses the problem of sin in one's life. The concept of grace - namely that God forgives sin - is shown through the Bible, and if a person chooses to be forgiven of their sin, they are often then invited to become a Christian in order to learn how to live in the context of that freedom. - The method of evangelism would then be relationship driven. - The "What's in it For Me?" would be forgiveness - The first step would be to encourage the would-be convert to read the Bible. - The ultimate goal would be to get the convert to make a decision to continue learning about this forgiveness and grace from Jesus, typically in some kind of fellowship. In contrast, my naive understanding of Islam seems to be that it is a highly cultural thing - that one is born into a Muslim culture, and one is expected to simply continue to follow the traditions of the culture. While within the culture a life-long learning of the Quran is praised and encouraged, that would presuppose being born into that culture. If, however, it were merely a cultural thing, then it would not be growing beyond immigration. Within America's prison system in particular, this is demonstrably false. And, since Islam is, in fact, growing, there must be a mechanism by which non-Muslims are enticed into it. I would like to know how that occurs. So the question, again, is, how does a Muslim go about bringing a non-Muslim into the ummah? What techniques, incentives, and methodologies are common for proselytizing amongst those who were not already born into the culture?

Is wishing a Muslim person "happy Eid" before the day of Eid al-Fitr something which is done in Islamic culture? In my case, I have a work-friend who I typically see once a week at work. I am *fairly certain* they are fasting for Ramadan. Would it be better to wish them "happy Eid" a few days **before**, or a few days **after** June 15th? Or is there no difference? As I understand it, Eid al-Fitr is a celebration of *the end* of a month of fasting, so I wasn't sure if it would be appropriate to congratulate them on the conclusion of the month while they are *still fasting*.

I have been contacted to write the script of a play. Is it permissible for me to write a play in which there are many non Muslim characters? There will be no display of shirk or any rituals of other religions. I should also mention that the script I have come up with includes a king who does not rule by the sharia. The king is presented in a negative light but that is not because of not adhering to the sharia but because of his pride and greed. There is no mention or reference to Islam or the shariah law.

I have been reading a book about Muhammad (pbuh) and have learnt, I am sure only a little, about Islam and the culture and times back then. It seems to an unlearned man like myself that the laws were highly relevant given the nature of society and culture of the day. My question is, are the laws still relevant in the culture and society of the modern day, and as I can only talk for UK I will direct it with this culture and society in mind. I am aware of the obvious cultural/tradition heritage of the Middle-east versus the UK but that aside please could someone elaborate or at least ask some further questions so that I can refine this question further into the format required for this forum. The specific laws that for me personally are hard to grapple with are those of corporal punishment etc. Update: Both cultural and Islamic claims are played to win over whether a law is to be adhered to or not, that is partly why I asked the question. On the face of it this question can seem obvious to answer, but on a closer consideration there are complications that arise, especially for people that do not have a great knowledge on the subject and the answers are found only through further research. My problem is laws have been and can be determined by interpretation through the lens of culture and some are considered truly universal but how can you know and if knowledge is there to aid discernment, how can it be distilled from scripture that has been written possibly for a different audience in a different era and being no scholar on Arabic how can one be sure the meaning in the language still has the same meaning today, I am sure it is not only English that suffers from loss of meaning through language evolution? Actually, on second thought, justice is justice and that is universal, but the prescription for certain crimes such as theft where the offender loses limbs seem unnecessary, I am not saying they are wrong although to me that kind of punishment seems to me to be unnecessary for the culture I live in but in that case I would be using my own culture as a means to interpret the rewards for such crimes. I think my question is difficult to answer when attempting to discern what are cultural and what are Islamic precepts, so I will ask another question more specific to certain laws that have already been suggested in answers to this question.

Do Salafis disapprove of Nowruz ? I know that Salafis disapprove of some festivals. For example, Saudi Arabia's religious police ban Valentine's Day . Is Nowruz a festival they disapprove of?

There've been a couple of tweets about "blood money" and Indonesia, to do with impending executions by the Indonesian government of two members of the Bali Nine : From Father Bob > Allowance is made/encouraged in the Quran to substitute "blood money" > for "blood letting". Have we approached the Indonesian offended party? From Fiona Patten > Will Indonesian govt accept blood money? I'm sure we can easily raise > $1.9m which seems to be the price for a life > http://gu.com/p/45zyb/stwprice … Is "Blood Money" a religious practice, or is it a cultural practice? Also, is it applicable in parts of Indonesia outside of Aceh, or only applicable in middle eastern countries like Saudi Arabia?

I am not a follower of Islam or any other sect of Christianity or Judaism. Despite the differences in many of the ideals and teachings from these religions and what I believe, I feel that I should wear a hijab and/or jilbab and otherwise dress modestly with some sort or head covering or scarf. I believe that each person should do what they feel is best for them, and by that logic, I know that I should cover and be modest, but I am also concerned with how others would feel about me doing so. I would be wearing the coverings so that others see me for my inner self and not judge me on my outward appearance, because I believe it is the right thing to do, and because I would like to keep my whole self to myself, those close to me, and the Divine/Spirit. However, I do not want to offend anyone with my ignorance, either culturally or religiously. Is there anything in Islam that restricts or discourages non-Muslims from wearing such traditionally Muslim garments?

The Qur\an does not specify that women must cover their hair. It merely says that they have to preserve their 'beautiness' (e.g. ornaments). Wearing hijab was a norm prior to the spread of Islam and was common all over the world in many cultures. The other cultures gradually abandoned it but our culture still holds on to it. Many Arabs are conservative and still attached to their old culture and tradition, that's why they interpret it in that way. Why women should wear hijab if I can interpret what Qur\an says in a different way than conservative Arabs (not about religion but about culture) do?

What is the concept of Fiancé/Fiancée in Islam ? I come from a pakistani background and I know many people who get engaged for 2/3 years and its acceptable in the culture too. But what does Islam say ?

> **Possible Duplicate:** > [Are all of the laws in the Quran/Haddith/Islam relevant to modern (western) society?](https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/4115/are-all-of-the-laws-in-the-quran-haddith-islam-relevant-to-modern-western-soci) This question was spawned from: https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/4115/are-all-of-the-laws-in-the-quran-haddith-islam-relevant-to-modern-western-soci I would like to know more specifically whether or not the punishments such as amputation for theft should still stand in modern societies? Practical speaking, I can understand that when initiating communities, there is a need for law and order and the punishments need to be effective. I believe that not all the punishments prescribed are no longer necessary in established societies to maintain order. Capital punishment can be seen as a deterrent but crimes that would warrant such punishments still occur, so it seems to me that they aren't as effective a deterrent as they are supposed to be. Are these kind of considerations examined by religious leaders to be sure that they are being applied properly and are truly universal or are the punishments considered infallible and universal and therefore not under any scrutiny. When I ask this question there are many thoughts flying around in my head just like what I have written so for my it is not clear what the Islamic stance is on such questions. Update: I will delete this question if it is not different sufficiently, but I thought this question is different because there is a distinction between a judgement and the sentence, and I think the first question was more about the judgement, i.e., has a law been transgressed and this question where the law has been transgressed and a sentence should be passed and should the sentencing be equivalent to that of 1400 years ago where law and order was in the process of being established.