*Note: This post is intended to provide a canonical answer for a common class of questions* --- The forbiddance of drinking *khamr* is is well-known in Sunni Islam, based primarily on the following Qur'anic ayah: > [[Al-Ma'idah 90](http://legacy.quran.com/5/90)] O you who have believed, indeed, intoxicants (*khamr*), gambling, stone altars, and divining arrows are but defilement from the work of Satan, so avoid it that you may be successful. In addition, two common ahadith are used to elaborate on this, as follows: > Every intoxicant is wine (*khamr*) and every intoxicant is forbidden. and > Whatever intoxicates in large amounts, a small amount of it is unlawful. Whereas the forbiddance on drinking alcoholic beverages in general is, to the best of my knowledge, unanimously held, there is some dispute between the scholars as to how far the prohibition against foods that contain alcohol — even trace amounts — is to be taken. While I'm sure there are many others I'm missing, off the top of my head some of the points of contention would include issues such as "Is the alcohol from wine (i.e. grapes) or some other source," "Does the final product contain enough alcohol to be detected or to have an intoxicating effect," "Was the alcohol added intentionally, or did it generate naturally (e.g. leavened bread, fermented fruit juice)," and "Does the rule of necessity apply (e.g. alcohol in medicine)?" In order to prevent opinion-based voting, please refrain from posting answers that only cover a single point of view: **What I am looking for in an answer here is *a single post* summarizing the major points of contention and predominant opinions of each of the Sunni madhahib**, ideally with a brief explanation of why that opinion is held if it is fundamentally different from the others or seems to go against clear evidences. Including significant opinions outside of those dominantly held by the major madhahib would also be welcome, as long as they're clearly marked as such. In the interest of keeping this from getting too broad (if it isn't already), I am limiting this question to alcohol that is clearly meant for human consumption (i.e. food, beverages or oral medication); the issue of alcohol being used in things like perfume or topical treatments is irrelevant here.

After doing wudu, I put face cream that contains stearyl alcohol and urea. I also pray with that cream. I am also fasting (it is Ramadan now). Is it ok to use this cream or did my wudu/prayers/fast break? I have a bad skin condition which requires me to put cream on my face 24 hours a day. If I don't use a face cream on my face, then it becomes red and dry and itchy. I finally found this cream that works on my face but is it halal? I researched online and some people say it's ok and some people say it's not: Source1 Source2 Source3 Source4 Thank you.

From *On the Boundaries of Theological Tolerance in Islam* (Faysal Al-Tafriqa Bayn Al-Islam wal Zandaqa) by Al-Ghazali (translation: pdf ) writes: > Included among such matters would be the claims of some **who style themselves Sufis to the effect that they have reached a state between themselves and God wherein they are no longer obligated to pray, and that drinking wine, devouring state funds, and other forms of disobedience are rendered licit to them**. Such people, without doubt, must be executed... This passage took me quite by surprise. The text is nearly 1000 years old and might be obsolete. Moreover, even back then, it might only be referring to a very small proportion of the Sufi population. Hence my question: **Question**: Is it common among Sufis to not feel obligated to pray, drink wine, etc.? I'm guessing it's not common, but I don't have anything to back up that guess. And there's plenty of Muslims around who don't pray, drink wine, and so on.

Said Muhammad [al-Shaybānī]: “Abū Hanīfah informed us, from Sulaymān al-Shaybānī, from Ibn Ziyād, who said that he opened his fast with ‘Abdullāh ibn ‘Umar, and he provided him a drink which seemed to inebriate him. When he awoke in the morn, he enquired, ‘What was this drink? **I was hardly able to find my house!’** **‘Abdullāh replied, ‘We did not give you other than dates and raisins.’ Muhammad said: We adopt this, and it is the position of Abū Hanīfah.”** Kitāb al-Āthār, pp. 699-700 According to al-Tahäwi, **Abü Hanifa and al-Shaybäni claimed that intoxication occurs when an individual cannot differentiate the ground from the sky and a man from a woman,** while Abu Yusuf lowered the bar to a simple slurring of speech. Al-tahawi mukhtasar 1:278 “**From the point of view of Abu Hanifah, intoxication is the state of a person when "intellect has left him so he does not understand a little or much** (anything at all)” - no source i could find Are these statements correct? Was intoxicating described as such. Isn’t it permissible to drink nabidh (from dates) up til the point of intoxication as described And isn’t it permissible to drink non grape/date/raisin drinks till the point described as well? From the perspective of early hanafis.

I'm a socially conscious musician. I rhyme about things that occur in society in order to bring awareness. I don't swear in my music nor do I encourage anything that is un-islamic, in my lyrics. A lot of my music has positive messages for society. I've recently employed someone to manage my gigs and recordings. I sometimes have to perform at venues where they serve alcohol. These institutions pay me for a gig and some of that money is obviously acquired with the sale of alcohol. What can I do with that money? Is that money considered haram for me to spend? If so, what can I do with it? Can I give it to a beggar? I know that money earned out of interest can be used to build a toilet for a community. I don't know if I will get that amount of money to build such a structure so some realistic ideas would be greatly appreciated.

Does "boiling wine in the oven" make it Halal? has this problem different answers depending on the denomination or is there consensus about it?

I have read that gambling, pornography and alcohol among other things are haram. So would ownership in cam-girl industries and casinos, be considered haram also? Even if the person does not necessarily participate in these activities himself?

My friend drinks alcohol but I don't drink alcohol the next day he eat my half shawarma and I ate the remaining another half of the shawarma does it mean I drink or i ate alcohol Does Allah forgive me if it is a sin

I am working on a web project in which there are multiple stores and basically we provide a feature that it gives you the best products according to the prices. For example if there is a same product in different stores than you can easily compare the prices across the stores and can find one with lower price or the one that suits you. It also has an AI feature that tells you about it. Now my point of concern is that these stores also include alcoholic products, and there is a different category for it. But the main purpose of our application is not selling alcohol but to give products based on the prices. So, I just want to clarify if it is permissible or not? Or if my earnings will be halal?

In Sahih Muslim 1676a, it says > 'Abdullah (b. Mas'ud) reported Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) as saying: It is not permissible to take the life of a Muslim who bears testimony (to the fact that there is no god but Allah, and I am the Messenger of Allah, but in one of the three cases: the married adulterer, a life for life, and the deserter of his Din (Islam), abandoning the community. This means a Muslim can only be killed for three reasons 1) adultery 2) murder 3) apostasy Howeve in Sunan an Nasa’i 5661 it says > It was narrated that Ibn 'Umar and a number of the Companions of Muhammad ﷺ said "The Messenger of Allah ﷺ said: 'Whoever drinks Khamr, whip him; then if he drinks (again), whip him; then if he drinks (again), whip him; then if he drinks (again), kill him.'" Isn’t that a contradiction?

My aunt made a cake and bring it to our home today and i ate one part. I didnt asked if it was halal since she is a muslim as well so i tought it was ok to eat. The cake didnt had any odor or alcohol taste. But she said that she brought an already made dough. In the country i live in (France) pre made dough are always made with alcohol (exept ones that are sold in shops owned by muslims but i know she haven't brought it there). So knowing that i just consumed alcohol i tried to threw it up (took me a long time to do so since im not used to it lol). I did threw up in the end but im not sure if i got rid of it all or just one bit. So my question is that i saw that consuming haram food make your duaa be rejected for 40 days. Does it concern any one that does it or just ones that does it willingly ?

Salaam alaikum, I received a gift from my land lady today...some freshly baked cookies for the holidays! I was coincidentally doing a lot of thinking this week on whether or not alcohol evaporates when baked and after a lot of research I learned that alcohol will not dissolve in a hot oven. I read 10-15 articles but here is one excerpt that gets the point across: > "The longer you cook, the more alcohol cooks out, but you have to cook > food for about 3 hours to fully erase all traces of alcohol. A study > from the U.S. Department of Agriculture's Nutrient Data lab confirmed > this and added that food baked or simmered in alcohol for 15 minutes > still retains 40 percent of the alcohol. After an hour of cooking, 25 > percent of the alcohol remains, and even after two and a half hours > there's still 5 percent of it. In fact, some cooking methods are less > effective at removing alcohol than simply letting food stand out > overnight uncovered." Source: https://www.foodnetwork.com/how-to/packages/food-network-essentials/cooking-wine-does-alcohol-burn-off#:~:text=The%20longer%20you%20cook%2C%20the,40%20percent%20of%20the%20alcohol . I can ask what the ingredients were in these cookies and I will do that. But let's assume that she used vanilla extract and that means that technically...these cookies have alcohol in them. What is the permissibility of throwing this bag of cookies away? Now that I know they're alcoholic (even if they don't taste as such) I can't give them to someone else. That would mean I knowingly shared alcohol with another person (whether a kafir or not). Subhan Allah this gets more complicated now. Today I also walked past a homeless person who asked me for money. I was worried he'd buy drugs so instead I went out and bought him a non halal chicken burrito instead. We have no Halal restaurants where I live, but I didn't want to risk ignoring someone in need. As I sat there, waiting for that burrito to be made, I wondered if I was sinning but eventually I thought of it as the lesser of two evils. Perhaps I should have bought him something vegetarian instead but I also worried he was malnourished and chicken seemed like a better option for his health. Is it permissible in that example to provide someone with non-halal food? If not, what's the best thing I could have done as a believer? Jazak Allah Khair.

When I lived in Italy I used to have bread from a company called Mulino Bianco. Here is a link to one of their bread's ingredients: https://www.mulinobianco.it/pan-bauletto-integrale?yxpt-from=search The ingredients are just your regular bread's ingredient (wheat, water, salt, yeast, oil). but they said they add alcohol to the surface after making bread (as preservative I believe). Would this make the bread haram?

I read on an islamqa.info fatwa that this is what Imam maalik said. But a reference was not listed and I do not know where to find one, if it exists please tell me it. Thanks

I know that this kind of question has been asked multiple times on this site and you can probably find them on Google as well, but one thing that is still unclear to me is regarding alcohol that was used as one of the ingredients in any Japanese food (Sushi), Italian food (Lasagna) and any other western food in general. Now, I've read in some hadith that: > Whatever intoxicates in large quantities, a little of it is haraam.” Narrated by al-Tirmidhi, 1865; classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Tirmidhi. To make it clear for myself and anyone here, the above quote is referring to any drink that will make you drunk in large quantity even for a single drop it will be haram. But, what if that single drop of the haram drink was added in any type of food and you consumed that food. Will it make the food that you consumed haram? I know that the content of the alcohol doesn't evaporate completely and I'm referring it to many sources > A study conducted by the US Department of Agriculture’s Nutrient Data Laboratory in an articles called Alcohol retention in food preparation, by Augustin J, Augustin E, Cutrufelli RL, Hagen SR, Teitzel C., J Am Diet Assoc. 1992 Apr;92(4):486-8, calculated the percentage of alcohol remaining in a dish based on various cooking methods. The results are as follows: Link to the table of content http://whatscookingamerica.net/Q-A/AlcoholCooking.htm My real question is: **If drinking wine in large amounts is intoxicating in small amounts, it is haram.** **If adding a small amount of wine to lasagne, and eating a large amount of that lasagne is not intoxicating, is lasagne halal?**

I have a metal plate in my arm that was caused by a car bombing. I started taking tramadol to relief my pain but i got into an addiction problem with it so later i stopped. The doctor then told me about Absolut vodka and he said that it was intended to be a medicine/drug that could be used medically but then they just sold it was vodka, he also said that it has 0% of addiction. Should i take it for my severe pain or is it haram?

Alminbar.com lists the hadith: > Sahl bin S'ad As-Sa'di reported that the Prophet sallallaahu 'alaihi wasallam said: "This Community will experience the swallowing up of some people by the earth, the metamorphosis of some into animals, and being rained upon with stones.'' Someone asked, ''When will this be, O Messenger of Allah?''. He said, ''When female singers and musical instruments appear and wine is held to be lawful.'' (Ahmad & Tirmithi) This is also mentioned in *The Reliance of the Traveller* Section r40.1 (quoted at e.g. Muhammadanism.com ). [Side note: I asked about another hadith in this section (r40.1) here: ] I'm skeptical about this hadith by content alone: it would require an overt miracle of Allah, and while Allah has that power, miracles are not everyday occurrences. Moreover, in much of the world, these things are held lawful, and we're not observing people being swallowed up, metamorphosizing, nor rains of stones. It may be referring to one of these: 1. Jami' at-Tirmidhi 2210 , 2. Jami' at-Tirmidhi 2211 , 3. Jami' at-Tirmidhi 2212 , all listed as weak "Da'if (Darussalam)". I'm not sure if I've identified these correctly; they don't accurately match the quote. I also don't know who "Ahmad" refers to. **Question**: What is the source and reliability of this hadith?

I am living in a dorm with a shared kitchen, and my flatmates drank alcohol on the kitchen table, can i still eat on that table?

Did prophets prior to Muhammad ﷺ prohibit alcohol? If not, why does Quran say all the prophets preached the same message?

It's long been my dream to be a pastry chef. I haven't told my parents yet, but I recently told my older brother. He respected my interests, but he doesn't completely welcome the idea. He pointed out that pastry includes working with alcohol (certain recipes ask for a dash of wine etc). I am fully aware of this, but of course, I do not intend to use alcoholic substances in any form if ever I decide to pursue a career in pastry and baking. So my exact question is: is it possible to pursue pastry, even though I will sometimes have to use alcohol while learning in class? (Whenever possible, I will certainly use a substitute ingredient)