I am aware that it was most likely originally composed in Latin (this is why it is highly unlikely that St. Athanasius himself wrote it) but has anyone ever tried translating it into Koine Greek? If so, where would I be able to find the text?

If the hymn [*Panis angelicus*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panis_angelicus) refer to the Eucharist (flesh of Christ, bread of life), why did St. Thomas Aquinas not say "Christ's bread" (*Panis Christi*, if that's the right Latin grammar) instead of "Angelic bread" (*Panis angelicus*)? Why switch the focus from Christ's body to Angels?

I'm trying to find Calvin's commentary on Psalm 88 in his original Latin.

"Hugh of Saint-Cher († 1263) was the second Dominican Master of Theology in Paris, and the first Dominican cardinal" (n. 39) who, "through the persuasion of Master [St.] Albert [the Great]", convinced "John of Vercelli, Master General of the [Dominican] Order" to accept St. Thomas Aquinas into "the Baccalaureate at the Order’s studium in Paris." (*William of Tocco’s Life of St. Thomas Aquinas* pp. 61-62). "Hugh is celebrated for his prodigious theological and exegetical works, particularly the monumental commentary on the entire Bible (*Postillæ in totam Bibliam*) that he composed with a team of friars." (*ibid.* p. 62n39). Does an English translation of Hugh of Saint-Cher's *Postillæ in totam Bibliam* exist?

Latin is the official language of the Catholic Church. And, after Croatia got independent in the early 1990s, the Catholic Church has lobbied the Croatian government to introduce Latin as an obligatory subject in most Croatian high-schools for two years (grade 9 and grade 10). So, in Croatia, young Catholics (and around 80% of Croatians are Catholics) tend to know some Latin.
I was wondering, how well do Catholics in other countries speak Latin? How is it in the USA?

According to Pope Boniface VIII's bull *Unam sanctam * (1302), > Indeed, at the time of the flood there was one ark of Noah, prefiguring the one Church, **made complete in one cubit** [*Una nempe fuit diluvii tempore arca Noe, unam Ecclesiam praefigurans, quae **in uno cubito consummata***] (Denzinger-Hünermann 870) What does it mean that the arc was "made complete in one cubit"?

I have heard that students of Christian Theology study Latin for a better understanding the religion. I haven't heard about them learning Greek. Is it the same case for both Catholics and Protestants? Does it have something to do with the fact that the only country that still uses Latin is the Vatican? When reading the Bible on my own, I met more words originated from ancient Greek than from Latin. Is it my bias, because a lot of words from Latin have been absorbed into English? **Did Greek weigh more heavily on Bible study than Latin historically, while it is the opposite today?**

The New Testament was originally written in Greek. But yet Roman Catholics held Mass in Latin for hundreds of years. What scriptural evidence, if any, caused Latin to be picked over Greek? Was any scriptural reasoning used to defend keeping the Mass in Latin for so long? What are the reasons?

Given that Ralph McInerny's book *What Went Wrong with Vatican II: The Catholic Crisis Explained* has recently been bandied about (see https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/96550/who-said-god-did-not-become-man-in-order-for-man-to-become-a-theologian and https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/96557/what-is-meant-by-catholic-truths-in-otts-fundamentals-of-catholic-dogma) , I would like to point out that at the beginning of that book on pg. 7, one finds: >It is forgotten now that early in his papacy he [Pope John XXIII] issued a directive requiring Latin to be fully restored as the language of instruction in seminaries and pontifical institutions. QUESTION: Specifically, what was the directive of the said Pope fully restoring Latin as the language of instruction in seminaries and pontifical institutions; and was it ever followed? What is its status today?

I would think it's a natural transition for Catholics who prefer the [Traditional Latin Mass](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tridentine_Mass) (TLM) to go to the [*Novus Ordo* mass](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mass_of_Paul_VI) celebrated under [General Instruction of the Roman Missal](https://www.usccb.org/prayer-and-worship/the-mass/general-instruction-of-the-roman-missal) (GIRM) rubric **in the Latin language** while preserving as much non-GIRM-prescribed elements from TLM as much as possible, so they can be part of the post Vatican II church fully along with the vernacular *Novus Ordo* faithfuls. Yes, there will be differences from TLM, but I would think it's a much smaller price to pay for both the faithfuls and the Vatican committed to implement Vatican II. Does it even make sense? And if so, are there parishes who do this? It would also be helpful for the answer to include a brief listing of the differences.

***Kyrie Eleison*** is a term that is used in the Latin Mass of the Catholic Church. However, I've been told that the phrase is entirely Greek and not Latin at all! So is the phrase Latin or Greek? Is it transliterated from Greek and therefore Latin?

In Acts 6:8, according to some manuscripts the Greek text states, >Στέφανος δὲ **πλήρης χάριτος** καὶ δυνάμεως ἐποίει τέρατα καὶ σημεῖα μεγάλα ἐν τῷ λαῷ. (NA28 ) which is translated by the NABRE into English as, >Now Stephen, **filled with grace** and power, was working great wonders and signs among the people. The Greek πλήρης χάριτος literally means "full of grace" (cp. John 1:14 ). In the Vulgate, St. Jerome translated that Greek phrase into Latin as *plenus gratia*, the equivalent of *gratia plena* in Luke 1:28, the only exception being *plenus* declined in the masculine gender referring to Stephen and *plena* being declined in the feminine gender referring to Mary (and the word order which is inconsequential). That being said, it is reasoned by Catholics that the virgin Mary was sinless because she is *gratia plena*, "full of grace." Can it be also said of Stephen that he, like Mary, was born without original sin and that he also never sinned, since he too is described as being *plenus gratia*? Why or why not?

I've been told that the Vetus Latina (Old Latin) translation of the New Testament is oldest edition/version of the New Testament texts available to the public. It seems some of the "originals" are either gone or buried away in inaccessible archives. Are there any Greek or other earlier copies or translations of the original New Testament source documents? While I understand that "all" of them may not be available, which ones are in their source language? My goal is to compile a copy for study of the earliest available material that is available for the New Testament either by piecemeal (scroll/document/book-by-book) or otherwise.

What's the difference between these two words other than obviously the spelling. I've seen some songs write Alleluia which sounds very similar to Hallelujah when sung.

Hi so I'm a Latin student and I was just wondering.

Can someone help translate the Latin formula used on the left side of the cross below. I already know the right side is the formula for Saint Benedict's Medal but the letters on the left still elude me. I'm assuming they relate to the Saint Benedict prayers of protection, because of what is known about it so far. I believe the letters on the left are delineated by the Greek cross between some of the letters but that's just an assumption on my part. Anyone familiar with this representation of the St. Benedict's Medal or perhaps the formula on the left looks familiar to someone familiar with the Benedictine Order. If it helps, the translation of the formula on the right is below. CSS is found diagonal on the top, then ML-NDSMD going down from right center. C S S M L - N D S M D, initials of the words Crux sacra sit mihi lux! Non draco sit mihi dux! ("May the holy cross be my light! May the dragon (devil) never be my overlord!") Then these letters are found on the crossbars (just to the right of the vertical phrase mentioned above) V R S N S M V - S M Q L I V B, in reference to Vade retro satana: Vade retro Satana! Nunquam suade mihi vana! Sunt mala quae libas. Ipse venena bibas! ("Begone Satan! Never tempt me with your vanities! What you offer me is evil. Drink the poison yourself!") At the bottom the is CSPB, listed left to right and top down. C S P B in reference to Crux Sancti Patris Benedicti ("The Cross of [our] Holy Father Benedict"). Also possibly of note, it's on double cross bar often associate with a Caravaca or Crusaders cross with a Celtic design at center. 

[Traditiones Custodes](https://www.vatican.va/content/francesco/en/motu_proprio/documents/20210716-motu-proprio-traditionis-custodes.html) states that > ... possess a knowledge of the Latin language sufficient for a thorough comprehension of the rubrics and liturgical texts, and be animated by a lively pastoral charity and by a sense of ecclesial communion. This priest should have at heart not only the correct celebration of the liturgy, but also the pastoral and spiritual care of the faithful; Maybe this is illicit in the first place and therefore a non-issue motu-proprio-wise, but I've gone to several masses in Spanish for the Latino communities who live around me where the priest has a very weak grasp of Spanish and delivers his homily in English. Also, I've gone to many masses in English with missionary priests, who we're grateful for coming into our diocese to help with the priest shortage, but it's not clear that they posses a knowledge of the "English" language sufficient for a thorough comprehension of the rubrics and liturgical texts. One reason I'm asking is because in recent weeks I've heard about the deep spiritual significance of Latin and that some people believe proper diction is essential to proper celebration of the Eucharist. Now, I would imagine this is not something that the Holy Father has on his mind when he's considering reasons for limiting celebration of the Traditional Latin Mass. However, he used knowledge of Latin as a bullet point, and it would seem to me that knowledge of the language the Mass is prayed in is important no matter which books a priest is using. So is knowledge of Latin more imperative than knowledge of other languages?

I read that Jesus probably spoke Arameic and Hebrew. And that a Bible verse indicated that he could read. Jesus lived in the Roman empire, so Latin was known by at least some people in the region. Is there any indication in scripture that Jesus could understand a little Latin? If not, is it reasonable to believe that a typical man born in the same region in the same year was able to understand/read at least some basic Latin words?

St. Thomas Aquinas' hymn *Tantum Ergo*, which is usually sung at Benediction, always seems better in Latin: >Et antiquum documentum >Novo cedat ritui: Mainly because in both the transliterated and the literal translation it doesn't make a ton of sense: >And let the old practice >Give way to the new rite; Given this is written over 1000 years after the rite was established, what is this line in the hymn about?

The first stanza of the medieval Latin hymn *Dies Iræ* is as follows: > Dies iræ, dies illa > > Solvet sæclum in favilla, > > Teste David cum Sibylla. While the beginning is clearly taken from the prophet Zephaniah : > Dies iræ dies illa, dies tribulationis et angustiæ, dies calamitatis et miseriæ, dies tenebrarum et caliginis, dies nebulæ et turbinis (Zef 1:15) I am wondering to whom the names the last line refer and what specific testimonies are ment. For **David** the Old Testament king of Israel comes to mind – but is there any specific testimony concerned with the day of wrath? For ***Sibylla***, I do not even find her name in the bible. Wikipedia refers to some ancient greek oracles ; but why should they be named in a christian hymn. Is there a definitive interpretation? Who are these two and can their specific testimonies identified?