Do Greek speaking Christians still use the Septuagint and original New Testament text? Or do they have a "modern Greek translation"? I ask because the New Testament is 2000 years old, presumably the Greek language has changed and evolved a lot in that time and so the original NT might not even be understandable to a modern Greek speaker. I'm interested in what Greek speaking Christians use in general (Catholics, Orthodox, Protestant), but I'm also very interested in the Greek Orthodox church in particular. I'm curious what version of the scriptures they draw upon in their liturgy: the originals? or a modern paraphrase/translation?

I have been searching the internet for hours but the only resource I could discover so far that teaches biblical Greek a bit like I imagine is [Little Greek 101: Learning New Testament Greek](http://www.ibiblio.org/koine/greek/lessons/) It's not comprehensive but maybe it can give you a bit of an idea of what I am looking for, that is, why not take individual verses and explain the grammatical concepts with those verses, building up the vocabulary at the same time? So far there is nothing that does exactly this, but maybe you can help me out and point me to some book or resource?

Is **Hebron** referred to **Hebrew**? In **Genesis 39:17** → *The Hebrew Servant* → Here Joseph is called as a Hebrew. So this is my understanding that → Joseph's great grandfather Abraham was from Hebron → referred to Hebrews → often used with Israelites. It's usually refers to the descents of Abraham. **Hebrew** is → geographical reference whereas **Israelite** is → lineage reference Please correct me if I am wrong.

What is the word used for "devil" in Mel Gibson's movie "The Passion of the Christ" during the scene where Christ is interrogated by the Sanhedrin? The word "devil" appears in the English subtitles three times in this scene as a couple of characters give testimony against Christ. It sounds to me like they're saying "sha-dai-ah." When I search for what I'm hearing I find El Shaddai , which is the Hebrew word for "God Almighty," not "devil." I know that the dialog of this film is in Aramaic, Hebrew, and Latin. I can distinguish the Latin dialog from the rest, but I can't distinguish between the Aramaic and Hebrew. I think that Hebrew is used during the Sanhedrin scene.

Text: > “At this time Moses was born, and was well pleasing to God; and he was > brought up in his father’s house for three months. > > But when he was set out, Pharaoh’s daughter took him away and brought > him up as her own son. > > And **Moses** *was learned in all the* **wisdom of the Egyptians**, and was > mighty in words and deeds. > > “Now when he was forty years old, it came into his heart to visit his > brethren, the children of Israel.” ‭‭**Acts‬ ‭7‬:‭20‬-‭23‬** ‭**Q: How did Moses speak to the children of Israel & write the Torah if he was learned in all the ways of the Egyptians?** See also: John 5:45-47

Many popular Protestant gospel explanations and frameworks define the essence of sin as rebellion against God. [Two Ways to Live:](https://twowaystolive.com/box2.html) > The sad truth is that, from the very beginning, men and women everywhere have rejected God by doing things their own way. We all do this. We don’t like someone telling us what to do or how to live—least of all God—and so we rebel against him in lots of different ways. We ignore him and just get on with our own lives; or we disobey his instructions for living in his world; or we shake our puny fists in his face and tell him to get lost. > > How ever we do it, we are all rebels, because we don’t live God’s way. We prefer to follow our own desires, and to run things our own way, without God. This rebellious, self-sufficient attitude is what the Bible calls ‘sin’. [Knowing God Personally:](http://4laws.com/laws/englishkgp/default.htm) > "All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God" (Romans 3:23). Man was created to have fellowship with God; but, because of his own stubborn self-will, he chose to go his own independent way and fellowship with God was broken. This self-will, characterized by an attitude of active rebellion or passive indifference, is an evidence of what the Bible calls sin. [Christianity Explored:](http://www.christianityexplored.org/what-is-christianity) > But many people rejected Jesus. They thought they’d be happier making their own rules and living outside his kingdom. This rejection of the King is something we all do. Jesus called it sin. But the [Hebrew](http://biblehub.com/hebrew/2398.htm) and [Greek](http://biblehub.com/greek/266.htm) words for sin have the senses of failure, error, and evil. What basis is there for defining sin as "rebellion"? - Is there any lexical support for such a definition (either through a sub-sense of those words, or through other words)? - Are there any passages which define or equate sin and rebellion?

I have met Muslims and interacted with them directly and indirectly about their brief that the Islamic prophet Muhammad is mentioned in the Bible. One such claim is centred on the Song of Solomon 5:16. The following is how Muslims usually reason in support of their view: In Song of Solomon 5:16 the original text reads: חכו ממתקים וכלו מחמדים זה דודי וזה רעי בנות ירושלם. The original Hebrew word in the verse mentioning the name Muhammad is “מחמד”. [These letters in English are MHMD and in Arabic are محمد (Muhammad)]. But, does the above understanding base on exegesis or eisegesis?

I had thought that the Old Testament had two versions: Greek and Hebrew. Today, from this link I've found that before the Greek Bible, there was another version, the Aramaic Bible. During Jesus time, did the Jews use versions of the Old Testament in Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek? Did they use versions in other languages? ---------- I'm sorry as I have misunderstood the link above. After searching the internet, I found another link : > The writings of the Old Testament of **the Bible were preserved in three > languages - Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek**, and have been passed on to us ...//cut And this > The originality and the importance of Aramaic Old Testament (known as > Peshitta Tanakh) can be seen through its consistency by solivng the > contradiction between Septuagint and Hebrew Masoretic Text (Hebrew > Old Testament written several centuries after Jesus Christ) I'm unable to find out about on what year the Aramaic Old Testament began to be used or translated. ---------- Today I search more about my question, and this link say : > Jesus was quoting Aramaic. Not Septuagint. Aramaic was the spoken > language of first century Israel. From the sentence above, then there were three version Bible language in that time. But it seems still not clear as in Wiki I found out : 1. What Theodore of Mopsuestia says of the Old Testament is true of both: "These Scriptures were translated into the tongue of the Syriacs by someone indeed at some time, but who on earth this was has not been made known down to our day". 2. F. Crawford Burkitt concluded that the translation of the Old Testament was probably the work of Jews, of whom there was a colony in Edessa about the commencement of the Christian era. 3. The older view was that the translators were Christians, and that the work was done late in the 1st century or early in the 2nd. Today I've also read this link which I get from this link > The Peshitta Tanakh is the ancient Scriptures translated into Lishana > Aramaya (Aramaic language) from the original Hebrew text which > pre-dated the Greek Septuagint text (LXX).

I find it hard to believe that there was no word for that kind of thing but this source explains that Jesus' genealogy is harmonized by that claim. I really want that claim to be true and solidly backed up. I'm at a loss as to how to find out how to back up that claim though. [Why are Jesus' genealogies in Matthew and Luke so different?](https://www.gotquestions.org/Jesus-genealogy.html)

In discussions I have had in the past over the acceptability of a Christian drinking alcohol I have heard that some 'dry' believers say that the wine in the Bible was not wine as we know it commonly today. It was actually non-alcoholic grape juice. I personally believe that the wine of Jesus' day is the wine that we know. Is there any Biblical/historical evidence to the contrary, that the wine of the past was non-fermented juice?

What is the original language that each of these books were written in? >Genesis, Exodus, Leviticus, Numbers, Deuteronomy, Joshua, Judges, Ruth, 1 Samuel, 2 Samuel, 1 Kings, 2 Kings, 1 Chronicles, 2 Chronicles, Ezra, Nehemiah, Esther, Job, Psalms, Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, Song of Solomon, Isaiah, Jeremiah, Lamentations, Ezekiel, Daniel, Hosea, Joel, Amos, Obadiah, Jonah, Micah, Nahum, Habakkuk, Zephaniah, Haggai, Zechariah, Malachi, Tobit, Judith, Greek Esther, Wisdom of Solomon, Sirach, Baruch, Letter of Jeremiah, Song of Three Youths, Susanna, Bel and the Dragon, 1 Maccabees, 2 Maccabees, 1 Esdras, Prayer of Manasseh, Psalm 151, 3 Maccabees, 2 Esdras, 4 Maccabees, Odes, Psalms of Solomon, Epistle to the Laodiceans, Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Acts, Romans, 1 Corinthians, 2 Corinthians, Galatians, Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, 1 Thessalonians, 2 Thessalonians, 1 Timothy, 2 Timothy, Titus, Philemon, Hebrews, James, 1 Peter, 2 Peter, 1 John, 2 John, 3 John, Jude, Revelation (list [here](https://wiki.logos.com/COM_API_Bible_Book_Abbreviations) and [here](https://www.sacred-texts.com/bib/poly/index.htm))

New Testament was written in Greek. But Jesus lived in Israel and was supposed to be the next King of Israel. I think it is probably fair to assume that he and his twelve apostles spoke Hebrew. Then why would the New Testament be written in Greek? I would think at least the Gospels part would be written in Hebrew.

In *Crisis of conscience*, written by Raymond Franz, the translators of the New World Translation are identified as Nathan Knorr, Frederick Franz, Albert Schroeder, George Gangas, and Milton Henschel. Where, if at all, did any of these study Biblical Hebrew or Greek?