Why was «کریسمس» (*kerismas*) loaned from English? Wasn't there an indigenous Christian presence which could of given a word of a differing etymology?

Did arabic Christians and Jews use the word Allah to refer to god before Islam came about? Are there any texts predating Islam that prove this

We see God determining the name of some before they are born, like in the case of Jesus (Matthew 1:21) and John the Baptist (Luke 1:13). As for persons chosen for a specific mission, God changes their name, for instance: from Abram to Abraham (Gen 17:5). However, in the case of Moses whose name (literally meaning 'drawn out of water', Exodus 2:10) was chosen by his adoptive mother namely, daughter of the Pharaoh, God continues to call him by his original name (Exodus 3:4). Moses, inspite of having fled as a young man after killing an Egyptian, is sent back at the age of 80 years to the Pharaoh to negotiate for the release of Israel. Carrying on with his Egyptian name would put him in trouble. In spite of such a prospect, we do not see God giving Moses a new name. **What according to scholars, could be the reason for that?**

Why is it not common practice for Biblical translators to also translate characters' names? I found that translating Biblical names into English has added layers of depth to the narratives. Update: I found [this site](https://readagape.com) , which allows you to toggle name definitions on and off. Here are a few examples of my above claim: **Genesis 3:20 - KJV** >"And Human [(Adam)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Adam) called his wife's name Life [(Eve)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eve) ; because she was the mother of all living." **Genesis 17:5 - KJV** >"Neither shall thy name anymore be called Exalted Father [(Abram)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abraham) , but thy name shall be Father of Nations [(Abraham)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abraham) ; for a father of many nations have I made thee." **Genesis 32:28 - KJV** >"And he said, Thy name shall be called no more Heel-grabber [(Jacob)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jacob) , but He Who Contends With God [(Israel)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jacob) : for as a prince hast thou power with God and with men, and hast prevailed." **Matthew 16:18 - KJV** >"And I say also unto thee, That thou art Rock [(Peter)](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Saint_Peter) , and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it." Which reads even better when paired with **Matthew 7:24-25** >"Therefore whosoever heareth these sayings of mine, and doeth them, I will liken him unto a wise man, which built his house upon a rock: And the rain descended, and the floods came, and the winds blew, and beat upon that house; and it fell not: for it was founded upon a rock."

Matthew 16:18 > And I say to thee: That thou art Peter; and upon this rock I will build my church, and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it. (Douay-Rheims) Some commentary regarding the "gates of hell" drawn from Councils, Popes, and Saints: - "Wisdom may fill the hearts of the faithful, and put to silence the dread folly of heretics, fittingly referred to as the gates of Hell." (St. Thomas Aquinas) - "we bear in mind what was promised about the holy Church and Him who said the *gates of Hell will not prevail against it (by these we understand the death-dealing tongues of heretics)*... (Second Council of Constantinople—Sentence Against the "Three Chapters") - "The holy Church built upon a rock, that is Christ, and upon Peter… because by the gates of Hell, that is, by the disputations of heretics which lead the vain to destruction, it would never be overcome." (Pope St. Leo IX) - "So when S. Peter was placed as foundation of the Church, and the Church was certified that the gates of hell should not prevail against it, — was it not enough to say that S. Peter, as foundation-stone of the ecclesiastical government and administration, could not be crushed and broken by infidelity or error, which is the principal gate of hell?" (St. Francis de Sales) **Question**: From a Catholic perspective, it seems that the *gates of hell* pertain to erroneous teachings (i.e., heresies). If one goes as far back as possible to the original Greek, might there be a way to connect the original (Greek) words used to denote "the gates of hell" to the notion of heresies? *Remark:* I vaguely recall reading something along these lines a while back but I can't remember where. Perhaps a Catholic theologian may be able to point me in the right direction—or at least in a direction where I can better understand the connection between "gates of hell" and heresies from a Catholic perspective.

From ``Fundamentals of Catholic Dogma'' by Ludwig Ott: According to St. Francis de Sales: > ``Church comes from the Greek word meaning *to call.* Church then signifies an assembly, or company of persons called.'' (from his *Catholic Controversies*) Using an online translator, I seem not to be able to get what I thought would be the English equivalents for *κυρικόν* and *κυριακόν*. Respectively, I get "mainly" and "Sunday." (I had thought I would get something along the lines of ``to call''.) QUESTION: Does anyone know what are the English equivalents to *κυρικόν* and *κυριακόν*; and, if they do not translate into "to call" or something similar, can anyone conjecture what may have been the Greek word for "to call" that St. Francis de Sales had in mind? Thank you.

I read that some early Christians were called “Followers of The Way”. I also know that The Tao (of Taoism) is often translated as “The Way”. Is there any connection either etymologically or in the roots of the two systems? *I thought of this because I have heard theories that Jesus may have traveled eastward during his mostly unaccounted-for younger years (his twenties I think it would be roughly).*

Regarding the Magisterium of the Catholic Church, the U.S. Cardinal Burke said: > The *"magisterium"* is a somewhat recent theological term, and what it refers to is the duty of the Church to teach, safeguard and promote the truths of the faith as they’ve been handed down in the Tradition. So whether you say that it's magisterium or not, if it's not in agreement with what the Church has always taught and practiced, then it can’t be magisterium, even if you say that it is. It is my understanding that the term *Magisterium* refers to the Teaching Authority of the Catholic Church. Could someone, perhaps, fill in some of the details as to what Cardinal Burke means by "a somewhat recent theological term"; i.e., when, where, and why was this term introduced to be used (as a substitute?) for the "Teaching Authority"? Should the former term be be preferred over the latter?

We see the Church having had great influence on many aspects of the development of human kind, including education, culinary habits etc. The very division of history by the term Before Christ and Anno Domini is a typical example. But one wonders why efforts were not taken in adapting those names and terminologies which had roots in the pagan culture. For instance, in ancient times the days of the week were named after the planets of Hellenistic astrology, in the order: Sun, Moon, Mars (Ares), Mercury (Hermes), Jupiter (Zeus), Venus (Aphrodite) and Saturn (Cronos). The sun and the planets continue to enjoy a semi-god status in many cultures to this day. My question therefore is: Did the Catholic Church make a conscious effort in re-naming the seven days of the week?

I want to know whether ***Savari*** is the Tamil Christian male name for Xavier?

I'm not an expert, I read the rules of the community but please go easy on me if I got this wrong. I've been reading etymologies for a few years now and I have a question about the Sundays in lent. In an archaic dictionary I found this: > PASE-DAY. Easter-day. The following pro verbial lines refer to the Sundays in Lent : Tid, mid, misera, Carl, Paum, good Pose-day. But if I'm correct we can look at it like: 1st Sunday, Tid; 2nd Sunday, mid; 3rd Sunday, misera; 4th Sunday (Laetare), Carl; 5th Sunday, Paum *(Palm)*; 6th Sunday, good Pose-day *(Easter?)* I think there's a Sunday missing. And this question is wide open to different names of the same dates. I'm just using the Archaic etymology to develop an understanding of their meanings. So names outside of Archaic are encouraged

According to Wikipedia : > The **G12 Vision** is a Christian evangelism and discipleship strategy established by Pastor César Castellanos, the founder of International Charismatic Mission Church. However, it doesn't explain the origin of the name. What is the significance of "G12" in the evangelism strategy "G12 Vision"?