**Some preliminary notes:** 1. No, this is not a hermeneutical question, as what I’m interested in are answers from theological perspectives who advance/defend the notion which states that the Nephilim mentioned in Genesis 6:4 are in fact the offspring of the sons of God mentioned in the same verse. 2. Separate is the question of the identity of the aforementioned “sons of God.” Instead, my inquiry is strictly about how the ancestry and origin of the Nephilim have been deduced from scripture according to any and every denomination who espouses such knowledge. **The verse** Here is the verse in question, from various English translations: > The Nephilim were on the earth in those days, and also afterward, when > the sons of God came in to the daughters of man and they bore children > to them. These were the mighty men who were of old, the men of renown. > **ESV** > The Nephilim were on the earth in those days—and also afterward—when > the sons of God went to the daughters of humans and had children by > them. They were the heroes of old, men of renown. **NIV** > The Nephilim were on the earth in those days (and also after this) > when the sons of God were having sexual relations with the daughters > of humankind, who gave birth to their children. They were the mighty > heroes of old, the famous men. **NET** > There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, > when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare > children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of > renown. **KJV** **The question** It seems clear to me from a plain, common sense reading of the verse that the Nephilim preexist the event in which the sons of God have offspring with the daughters of men. How can anyone claim that they originate from said relations? Simple question, hoping for a simple answer. God bless!

The Bible speaks of the Nephilim as the offspring of the “sons of God and daughters of men” in books such as: Genesis, Enoch, and a couple others. It does explain that they bred from evil beings, but it doesn’t specify if they themselves were evil or not, and even if they were supposed to be “evil”. Were they **all** evil?

> And, behold, the word of the LORD came unto him, saying, This shall not be thine heir; but he that shall come forth out of thine own bowels shall be thine heir. And he brought him forth abroad, and said, Look now toward heaven, and tell the stars, if thou be able to number them: and he said unto him, So shall thy seed be. And he believed in the LORD; and he counted it to him for righteousness. - Genesis 15:4-6 > What shall we say then that Abraham our father, as pertaining to the flesh, hath found? For if Abraham were justified by works, he hath whereof to glory; but not before God. For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness. Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt. But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness. - Romans 4:1-5 > This only would I learn of you, Received ye the Spirit by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? Are ye so foolish? having begun in the Spirit, are ye now made perfect by the flesh? Have ye suffered so many things in vain? if it be yet in vain. He therefore that ministereth to you the Spirit, and worketh miracles among you, doeth he it by the works of the law, or by the hearing of faith? Even as Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness. - Galatians 3:2-6 Does Reformed Theology (RT) assert that God made/caused/enabled Abraham to believe the promise God made in a primary fashion? What I mean is, one might say that the giving of a promise creates an opportunity for the choice to believe without directly causing that belief to occur in the same way that the prohibition in the Garden of Eden created an opportunity for Adam to choose but God didn't make Adam disobey. I think that RT affirms the latter (please correct me if I'm wrong). Does RT reject the former and assert that Abraham in no way would or could have believed unless God enabled/gave that ability to him? If yes (which I am sort of expecting) then a good answer will explain why real choice occurred in Genesis 3 but not in Genesis 15 and also whether God activated something latent in Abraham or gave him something brand new. In other words, did Adam's ability to make an actual choice disappear from humanity, go dormant, or something else? Bonus points for explaining (if yes) why Abraham's first act with his God-given faith was to ask for proof of God's re-iteration of his promise from Genesis 12:7. If God gave Abraham faith to believe (which Abraham played no part in), why was it a faith that doubted? > And he said unto him, I am the LORD that brought thee out of Ur of the Chaldees, to give thee this land to inherit it. And he said, Lord GOD, whereby shall I know that I shall inherit it? - Genesis 15:7-8

Is **Hebron** referred to **Hebrew**? In **Genesis 39:17** → *The Hebrew Servant* → Here Joseph is called as a Hebrew. So this is my understanding that → Joseph's great grandfather Abraham was from Hebron → referred to Hebrews → often used with Israelites. It's usually refers to the descents of Abraham. **Hebrew** is → geographical reference whereas **Israelite** is → lineage reference Please correct me if I am wrong.

Genesis 4 discusses the descendants of Cain: >"Cain knew his wife, and she conceived and bore Enoch. When he built a city, he called the name of the city after the name of his son, Enoch. To Enoch was born Irad, and Irad fathered Mehujael, and Mehujael fathered Methushael, and Methushael fathered Lamech. And Lamech took two wives. The name of the one was Adah, and the name of the other Zillah. Adah bore Jabal; he was the **father of those who dwell in tents and have livestock**. His brother's name was Jubal; he was the **father of all those who play the lyre and pipe**. Zillah also bore Tubal-cain; he was **the forger of all instruments of bronze and iron**. The sister of Tubal-cain was Naamah." Genesis 4:17-22 Why are we given details about what the descendants of Cain did? Is there some special significance to these details?

Some might question it that this kind of colossal story would be able to pass on accurately via oral tradition: for example older men telling this story to others among his own tribe Beside the fire. My original intent was to ask that how is it possible that exodus story could be passed on to the next generation so accurately? Some might say that exodus story is a myth, because no-one can pass on this story so accurately as it is written in the Bible.

How do those who understand Noah's Flood to be a global flood explain what the carnivorous animals ate after disembarking, if there were only 2 of all the other species left? Eating 1 would stop those species' reproductive lines, so what happened here?

I have a multi-part question. - Did Adam and Eve's Progeny Commit Incest? Genesis, Chapter 4 tells us about Cain and Abel. Genesis, Chapter 5 tells us about Seth and "other sons and daughters". I highly doubt that our species began with many acts of incest (not just for religious/legal/moral reasons but biological reasons as well), so how did humanity continue? As a Christian, am I obliged to accept one of the following? 1. Adam and Eve's progeny mated with descendants from another lineage that the Bible (through no apparent malice) failed to describe. 2. The story of Adam and Eve is just that - A story. It is a story that was passed down by way of oral tradition. It was never meant to describe actual historical events.

If He was revealed, why did He wait so long to reveal Himself? Humans have been around for 100,000+ years.

In Genesis 11:4, the people said, *“Come, let us build ourselves a city, with a tower that reaches to the heavens, so that we may make a name for ourselves...”* God saw this as an act of pride and rebellion, and responded by confusing their language and scattering them. Today, space agencies and astronauts aim to explore or even colonize outer space—what the Bible might refer to as "the heavens." This raises a spiritual question: Are there theological or biblical interpretations that suggest modern space travel could be a continuation of the same spirit of pride or rebellion seen in Babel?

Genesis chapter 42 - 45 recount story of Joseph tricking his brothers who are in Egypt to buy grain, into going back and forth several times from Canaan to Egypt in an attempt exonerate themselves in the (feigned) accusation from Joseph of being a spy. Eventually Joesph reveals himself as their brother, and Jacob and his family move to Egypt as a result. Why did Joseph trick them in this way? I can think of only a few reasons: - He wanted to get all of his brothers and father back to Egypt before he revealed himself. - He distrusted his brothers, since they had tried to kill him, and sold him into slavery years prior to this event, he was trying to ascertain if his younger brother and father were in fact still alive. - He was punishing his brothers by making them suffer this way in an act of revenge. In any event the author of Genesis spends a lot of precipitous time and space recounting this deception, is there some cultural aspect to this that I am missing? Is there some context to the story that would reveal more about the characters involved or the nature of God or their relationship to him?

***Zionism*** (political nationalism) certainly was not begun by Dispensationalists; and the occurrence of the Halocaust did give impetus to it. But Dispensationalist have strongly embraced it. And Zionist Dispensationalists often quote the Genesis 12 verse, ***God will bless those who bless Israel, and curse those who curse Israel*** to justify their support, spiritually, financially, and militarily, for the nation of modern Israel. >I will bless those who bless you, and whoever curses you I will curse, and all peoples on earth will be blessed through you. (Genesis 12:3) This is even though the majority of the Jews in Israel are either ***secular, or anti-Christian***. And are seen to persecute Christians living there. (Statements by King of Jordon, and news reports on TBN network who reluctantly received his report until they saw videos themselves of Jews disrupting Christian rites). And ***Christian Palestinians*** are not even on their radar screen! So how do ***protestant orthodox Christian scholars*** deal with this seminal verse about blessing Israel in contrast to the Dispensational interpretation? Which other scriptures do non-Disp. Christians appeal to, that causes them to treat ***all nation equally***, with love and mercy, without referring to any particular nation or political entity?

Unity Church often refers to the Holy Spirit in feminine terms, a view that contrasts with traditional Christian doctrine. This raises the question of whether their belief is tied to certain biblical wordings. In Genesis 2:18 (ESV), Eve is introduced with: > “Then the Lord God said, ‘It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him a helper fit for him.’” In the Gospel of John, the Holy Spirit is called a helper multiple times. For example, John 14:16 (ESV) says: > “And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Helper, to be with you forever.” Other similar references include John 14:26, 15:26, and 16:7, all using the Greek term paraklētos (translated as Helper, Comforter, or Advocate). Is Unity Church’s feminine understanding of the Holy Spirit based on this shared role/title of “helper” between Eve and the Spirit? Or is their interpretation shaped more by metaphysical symbolism or other theological influences?

The Book of Jubilees is included in the canon of the Ethiopian Orthodox Church and known from the Dead Sea Scrolls. It retells the events of Genesis and part of Exodus, but with significant expansions, reinterpretations, and a highly structured chronological system based on 49-year "jubilee" cycles. Does the Book of Jubilees imply that the Genesis and Exodus accounts are disorganized, incomplete, or in need of correction? I'm especially interested in how this is understood within Christian theology, rather than purely literary or historical analysis.

Genesis 2:2 says God rested on the seventh day after finishing His work, and Hebrews 4:9–11 speaks of a Sabbath rest for the people of God. Meanwhile, Jesus says in John 9:4, *“We must work the works of Him who sent me while it is day; night is coming, when no one can work.”* How do these concepts relate? Is “rest” purely eschatological, or is there a present spiritual rest for believers? And how should this impact how we understand the timing and urgency of Christian labor?

Old Earth Creationists (OECs) interpret the "days" in Genesis 1 as representing long periods (e.g., millions of years) rather than literal 24-hour days, to align with scientific evidence for an ancient Earth. What scriptural passages and theological arguments do OECs use to support this non-literal interpretation?

According to Genesis 5:5, Adam lived for 930 years. From a biological standpoint, cell division is a key part of growth and aging. My question is: If Adam’s cells continued to divide over such a long lifespan, does that imply he may have experienced continuous physical growth, possibly resulting in a giant-like stature? I'm especially interested in whether young-Earth creationist or literalist interpretations of Genesis support the idea that Adam was physically much larger than modern humans, particularly in light of ancient environments that may have included large animals (e.g., dinosaurs). Or is it more likely that his size was similar to ours, and the long lifespan simply reflected slower aging without continuous physical growth?

In Genesis 1, we observe that God the Father appears to be the one speaking creation into existence (“God said…”) and the Spirit of God is described as “hovering over the waters” (Genesis 1:2). However, the Son is not seen engaging in any form of activity in the narrative. This seems puzzling in light of John 1:1–3, which identifies the Word (the Son) as being present in the beginning and as the agent through whom all things were made, and Colossians 1:16, which states that all things were created through Him and for Him. Why doesn't Genesis include any mention or visible action of the Son in the creation account? How do Christian theologians reconcile this apparent absence with New Testament claims about the Son's role in creation?

In Genesis 1:28, God commands humanity to “be fruitful, multiply, and fill the earth.” This is a physical multiplication and filling of the world. In the New Testament, Jesus commissions His apostles to “go and make disciples of all nations” (Matthew 28:19), which seems like a spiritual multiplication—filling the world not biologically but with the gospel. Is this seen as a deliberate biblical pattern or typology? In what ways did the apostles fulfill this spiritual fruitfulness and multiplication, and do Christian traditions see a theological link between the original creation mandate and the Great Commission? I’m especially interested in perspectives that view the apostles as spiritually “fruitful” by preaching the gospel and establishing churches across the world.

Some Christians, particularly in the United States, believe that America has a divine obligation to support or defend the modern state of Israel. This belief is often linked to the promise in **Genesis 12:3**, where God says to Abraham, *“I will bless those who bless you, and whoever curses you I will curse.”* Is this verse the primary theological basis for that belief?