There are many holidays/feasts that end in -mas, like: 1. [Christmas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christmas) 2. [Marymas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nativity_of_Mary#cite_note-A-2) 3. [Michaelmas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Michaelmas) 4. [Roodmas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Roodmas) 5. [Candlemas](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Candlemas) How many other -mas's are there?

The Bible records many accounts of angels physically manifesting themselves to people, whether for the purpose of delivering a message, or to get them out of trouble, etc. [It also appears that most Christians believe these kinds of manifestations probably still happen today, although in extremely rare circumstances](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/86132/50422) . But when it comes to demons, besides Satan's taking the form of a serpent to tempt Eve, I'm not aware of any other cases where a demonic entity materialized in a bodily form in the physical. Of course, there are demon possessions, but those technically speaking belong to a different category, as demons do not manifest their own bodies -- they just usurp someone else's. By the way, as I say this, I notice that I'm making the assumption that demons must have some sort of spiritual body they can physically manifest at will in the first place, but I don't think this is an unreasonable assumption to make, considering that angels can do it, and also what 1 Corinthians 15:40 says: *There are **heavenly bodies** and earthly bodies, but the glory of the heavenly is of one kind, and the glory of the earthly is of another*. Do any denominations believe these kinds of physical demonic manifestations are possible and do happen from time to time?

### Background Protestants across the ages have criticized and prohibited icons and worship of icons of Jesus: John Calvin, *Institutes of the Christian Religion*: > God’s glory is corrupted by an impious falsehood whenever any form is attached to Him R. Scott Clark: > To picture His manhood, when we cannot picture His Godhead, is a sin, because we make Him to be but half Christ; we separate what God has joined ### Incarnation Protestants also believe in the incarnation: that God took on a physical form of a man named Jesus, and that Jesus retains a physical form of a human man today and into eternity, see the *Westminster Shorter Catechism* as an example of this belief: > Christ, the Son of God, became man, by taking to himself a true body, and a reasonable soul, being conceived by the power of the Holy Ghost, in the womb of the virgin Mary, and born of her, yet without sin ### Premises The premise of the question is as follows: Protestants believe **p1**. God (the son) took on physical form **p2**. Humans saw this physical form in the 1st Century CE **p3**. Some of those people worshiped Jesus while he was in the physical form Then reasonable logical inferences: **i1**. Those followers of Jesus continued to remember what Jesus physically looked like **i2**. When praying to Jesus, those people had a mental image of Jesus's face and prayed to that in their minds ### Question - Are any of the premises or inferences wrong according to Protestants? - Were the first followers of Jesus/Christians prohibited from making illustrations of Jesus? - Were the first Christians sinning when imagining Jesus's physical form when praying? - Why would putting an image of the incarnate Jesus to paper be a sin if people saw him and knew what he looked like? - Why would praying to an image of Jesus be wrong if praying to his physical form was not wrong?

What Bible passages affirm that God determines, prior to their birth, whether each person will end up in the New Jerusalem or in the lake of fire? The Bible is clear that some people were predestined to spend eternity in the New Jerusalem. But the Bible is not clear that the fate of everyone else is also predetermined. I expected to find this question asked and answered multiple times in the past, but I was unable to find this. Ephesians 1:4-5 ESV >Even as he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and blameless before him. In love he predestined us for adoption to himself as sons through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of his will, Ephesians 1:5 ESV >He predestined us for adoption to himself as sons through Jesus Christ, according to the purpose of his will, Romans 8:29 ESV >For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. Romans 8:28-30 ESV >And we know that for those who love God all things work together for good, for those who are called according to his purpose. For those whom he foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, in order that he might be the firstborn among many brothers. And those whom he predestined he also called, and those whom he called he also justified, and those whom he justified he also glorified.

Why are the 3 distinct Masses on Christmas (Dec. 25): 1. Mass at Midnight 2. Mass at Dawn 3. Mass at Daytime ?

I was reading this question, [What were the main doctrinal disagreements between Luther and Calvin?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/6050/21576) , and one of the differences between the two was Calvin believed in double predestination, while Luther believed in single predestination. So according to my understanding: * Double Predestination – God mandates who goes to Heaven AND Hell * Single Predestination – God mandates ONLY who goes to Heaven Could somebody give a Calvinist support for double predestination? Related Question: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/53984/

>For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God - Ephesians 2:8. >No man can come to me, except the Father which hath sent me draw him: and I will raise him up at the last day - John 6:44. There are other passages that say that we are saved through faith and other passages that say that God calls us to salvation, but I've found no passage that mentions both. So is it reasonable that the way God calls/draws to salvation is by giving faith? I look for answers from the point of view of those who believe that both Bible verses are talking about salvation. I am very pleased that I have received answers from a number of different perspectives. If I have to choose one, I will choose the recommended *sola fide*, especially since I already have excellent answers for Reformed Theology. **Conclusion:** God's saving call is the Gospel message we'd probably already heard. The difference is that God opens our spiritual ears to accept that call. The Gospel message heard through spiritual ears produces Faith. This is the relationship between God's call and Faith, and this is the way that Faith is the gift of God. My thanks to you all for reopening this question.

The Sabbath is mentioned about one hundred and forty-five times in the whole Bible (KJV), in the Old Testament the Sabbath is mentioned about ninety times and in almost all the texts it is an instruction to Israel to keep the Sabbath holy. Exodus 31:12 NASB >12 Now the Lord spoke to Moses, saying, 13 “Now as for you, speak to the sons of Israel, saying, ‘You must keep My Sabbaths; for this is a sign between Me and you throughout your generations, so that you may know that I am the Lord who sanctifies you. Exodus 35:1-3 NASB >35 Then Moses assembled all the congregation of the sons of Israel, and said to them, “These are the things that the Lord has commanded you to [a]do: > >2 “For six days work may be done, but on the seventh day you shall have a holy day, a Sabbath of complete rest to the Lord; whoever does any work on it shall be put to death. 3 You shall not kindle a fire in any of your dwellings on the Sabbath day.” But in the New Testament, it is mentioned about fifty-five times and in almost every text it is used as an index or marker of the cycle of the week as well as relative to an event that took place Matthew 12:1 NASB >[a]At that time Jesus went through the grainfields on the Sabbath, and His disciples became hungry and began to pick the heads of grain and eat Luke 6:7 NASB >7 Now the scribes and the Pharisees were watching Him [d]closely to see if He healed on the Sabbath, so that they might find a reason to accuse Him. I picked randomly the above texts but it seems most of them only refer to the Sabbath relative to the events that were taking place. There seems to be no clear instruction to keep the Sabbath in the New Testament. But many churches do teach that Christians are to keep the Sabbath. So what is the Biblical Basis for Christians keeping the Sabbath?

I was wondering which church denominations have a very strong emphasis in the prophecies of Daniel and Revelation since it seems they are linked to one another?

According to Protestantism, can Satan and his demons perform true and genuine miracles? God can perform great wonders and miracles, but can the Devil and his minions perform such wonders and miracles as Almighty God is able to perform. Are satanic miracles permanent and long lasting according to Protestant scholars?

I have often been struck by the various accounts of God hardening a person’s heart. Is this due to prolonged rejection of the Gospel, prolonged sin or to create a situation where God will be glorified?

How are Christians led by the Holy Spirit? How does the Holy Spirit communicate God's will to Christians? What mechanisms does the Holy Spirit employ to this end? Since these are probably controversial questions, I'm interested in an overview of major perspectives and what groups hold each perspective. ___ **Appendix - NT passages about the lead of the Holy Spirit** > *For **all who are led by the Spirit of God** are sons of God.* (Romans 8:14 ESV) > *And Jesus, full of the Holy Spirit, returned from the Jordan **and was led by the Spirit in the wilderness***. (Luke 4:1 ESV) > ***My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me**.* (John 10:27 ESV) > *When the **Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth**, for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things that are to come.* (John 16:13 ESV) > *But **the Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you**.* (John 14:26 ESV) > *Then **the Spirit said to Philip**, “Go up and join this chariot.”* (Acts 8:29 ESV) > *While Peter was reflecting on the vision, **the Spirit said to him**, “Behold, three men are looking for you. But get up, go downstairs and accompany them without misgivings, for I have sent them Myself.”* (Acts 10:19-20 ESV) > ***The Spirit told me** to go with them without misgivings. These six brethren also went with me and we entered the man’s house.​* (Acts 11:12 ESV) > *While they were ministering to the Lord and fasting, **the Holy Spirit said**, “Set apart for Me Barnabas and Saul for the work to which I have called them.”* (Acts 13:2 ESV) > *6 And they went through the region of Phrygia and Galatia, **having been forbidden by the Holy Spirit** to speak the word in Asia. 7 And when they had come up to Mysia, they attempted to go into Bithynia, **but the Spirit of Jesus did not allow them**. 8 So, passing by Mysia, they went down to Troas. 9 **And a vision appeared to Paul in the night**: a man of Macedonia was standing there, urging him and saying, “Come over to Macedonia and help us.” 10 **And when Paul had seen the vision**, immediately we sought to go on into Macedonia, concluding that **God had called us** to preach the gospel to them.* (Acts 16:6-10 ESV) > *9 He had four unmarried daughters, who prophesied. 10 While we were staying for many days, a prophet named Agabus came down from Judea. 11 And coming to us, he took Paul's belt and bound his own feet and hands and said, “**Thus says the Holy Spirit**, ‘This is how the Jews at Jerusalem will bind the man who owns this belt and deliver him into the hands of the Gentiles.’”* (Acts 21:9-11 ESV)

### Background *Sola Scriptura* is commonly defined as follows > **The Bible is the sole infallible source of authority for faith** (alternatively doctrine) **and practice.** Protestant discussions about the scriptural basis for *Sola Scriptura* nearly always involve 2 Timothy 3:16 and other NT verses, but I have not seen Protestants argue for for *Sola Scriptura* on the basis of the Hebrew Bible. ### Question Do Protestants believe the Hebrew Bible/Old Testament taught *Sola Scriptura* prior to the advent of Christianity and the writing of the New Testament? If so, which passages teach this? If not, how do they explain this doctrine only being introduced by the New Testament?

According to Catholicism, can Satan or the Devils perform true and genuine miracles? God can perform great wonders and miracle, but can the Devil and his minions perform such wonders and miracles as Almighty God is able to perform. > A miracle is defined as an extraordinary sensible effect wrought by God that surpasses the power and order of created nature. - [What Constitutes a Miracle?](https://www.catholic.com/magazine/online-edition/what-constitutes-a-miracle)

At the beginning, the apostles gave the teachings of Jesus Christ to the people, and the communities continued their lives, occasionally meeting to talk about God and / or to perform the Eucharist. And then the next historical information is that there were churches, and priests structured hierarchically with ranks like in armies and so on. So, when was the transition done from "people changing their lives according to the teachings of Jesus Christ" to full fledged religion with temples (churches) and priests? As far as I know Jesus: - came to fulfill the (existing) law, not to cancel it or its prophets (Matthew 5:17) - sent the apostles to teach - did not send anyone to administrate / organize anything (food, widows...) - did not command anyone to build any temple (church) - did never show any love towards priests and other "spiritual" leaders.

We are told that God calls, but is there any denomination which describes the nature of that call? >9 God is faithful, by whom ye were called unto the fellowship of his Son Jesus Christ our Lord - 1 Cor.1:9. 24 But unto them which are called, both Jews and Greeks, Christ the power of God, and the wisdom of God - 1 Cor.1:24. For instance, if it is a voice in our mind , what does it say? Or if it's an urge, what are we urged to do? **Summarizing the answers** - God's saving call is the Gospel message we'd probably already heard. The difference is that God opens our spiritual ears to accept that call.

The book 'The Tragedy of the Six Marys ' catalogues the practice of '*P'ikareum* ' within the Unification Church as led by Sun Myung Moon and Hak Ja Han, his wife, this practice being a supposed 'purification' of inbred sin in a woman by conjoining with the leader of the organisation (who took the title 'Father') and, supposedly, by that act, the 'inbred sin in her womb' was 'purified'. >Apart from the continuing controversy about its alleged practice in the Unification Church, in 1957 Korean journalist Kim Gyeongrae published several articles and a book tracing the roots of p'ikareum to Kim Baek Moon and the Israel Monastery and claiming, offering some evidence, that it was practised by what was at that time the largest Christian new religious movement in Korea, the Olive Tree founded by Park Tae-Seon (1915–1990). The Victory Altar, an offshoot of the Olive Tree, was also accused of having practised *p'ikareum* in its early days. Wikipedia - *P'ikareum* Sun Myung Moon died on 3rd September 2012 and shortly after his death, in a YouTube video his son, Hyung Jin Moon, appears to admit that his father did, indeed, engage in such a practice. However, in a later video, erroneously titled 'Hyung Jin Sean Moon and Kook Jin Justin Moon explain the Six Marys Part 7' (for he does not explain anything at all) he appears, wearing a crown and calling himself 'King', to condone his father and blames his mother. The video is rambling, skirting the subject without fully addressing it. I am therefore not clear as to whether *'P'ikareum'* is still being practiced by the Unification Church itself, or by the various organisations started under the leadership of the Moon family which have split from each other. I am looking for substantial evidence either way.

My question is directed to the Catholic perspective. While meditating on the Ascension of Our Lord, this thought came to my mind: There's only One Christ, which ascended into Heaven. If so, does that mean that when we unite ourselves to Him, be in our sorrows uniting to His, or our joys or some other aspect of the human life, does that mean this which we unite to Him (or what is His) is elevated to Heaven also, respecting, of course, the degree of perfection of this union? Furthermore, if that is the case, is this at least one sense of Christ's mediation between us and God? I'm asking this because I'm new to the faith, a cathecumen indeed.

Was the encounter of Yeshua (Jesus) with the Samaritan woman that had 5 husbands after any of the times that He talked about divorce and remarriage, like, for example, in the Sermon of the Mount? It is important to know whether His law of divorce and remarriage was already in place when He talked to her.

From what I understand, Calvin not only taught, but effectively systematized the doctrine of "predestinarianism," which holds that: >God for His own glorification, and without any regard to original sin, >has created some as "vessels of mercy", others as "vessels of wrath". >Those created for hell He has also predestined for sin, and whatever faith >and righteousness they may exhibit are at most only apparent, since all >graces and means of salvation are efficacious only in those predestined for >heaven. (From the Catholic Encyclopedia article on predestinarianism .) 1. Is strict Calvinism so extreme that it says God created certain souls as "vessels of wrath" destined for destruction? 2. If so, then what criteria did Calvin say a person could use to determine whether they personally were created for salvation or destruction?