The question arises whether the millennium is a literal 1000 year period, or a symbolic one. Perhaps the answer could be better ascertained if we look at other prophesied time periods, ones that were already fulfilled, and see what that shows us. Off the top of my head I can think of the several below, all of them fulfilled literally; but I'm not sure how to research this and perhaps others might be able to contribute some other instances, whether literal or symbolic. Here are the instances already thought of: The dreams of Pharaoh's officials interpreted by Joseph as to occur in 3 days in Genesis 40; The 7 years of famine in Pharaoh's dreams in Genesis 41; Nebuchadnezzar’s dream about his insanity in Dan. 4; The 70 years of the Babylonian captivity as prophesied in Jeremiah 25:11-13 and 29:11; Jesus' prophesy regarding being in the tomb 3 days in Matt. 12:40, Mark 8:41, and John 2:19; The destruction of Jerusalem, occurring in the generation still living after Jesus' death and resurrection in Matthew 24:34. The question is directed to any serious student of the Bible. Note that the prophesy has to have been fulfilled already (partial fulfillment is fine), in order to evaluate whether it was literal, or symbolic. Please Note: I am not looking for a defense or rebuttal of pre-post or a-millenialism, nor for general instances of fulfilled prophesy, but for specified time periods of future events, that were fulfilled.

I recently watched the debate between the Apostate Prophet and Jake Brancatella from DebateCon earlier this year. Jake was a touch aggressive and AP was flakey, but a good discussion regardless. Jake pointed out something interesting in his argument that I think demands attention: In Genesis 37, Joseph's second dream depicts the sun, moon, and eleven stars all bowing to him. Israel then interprets this as Joseph being lauded by his mother, father, and brothers. However, Rachel was already dead and thus was unable to bow to her son in Egypt. **What is the generally-accepted solution to this problem?** I can think of four answers, but I'm not confident about any of them: 1. Rachel and Israel already played favorites with Joseph, before the whole debacle. The window for this is pretty small, because Israel was flabbergasted by the idea when Joseph brought it up. 2. This is a post-mortem thing that will happen in the afterlife. This is unverifiable on our end and I think defies logic. 3. This is not about Rachel, but one of Israel's other wives (Leah was also probably dead, so not her. Still, two other potential candidates). This seems like a bit of a stretch, but it's possible. 4. Rachel (and all the other wives) were of one flesh with Israel through marriage, so his actions may turn over to them via association. I don't think there's precedent for such a reading. What thoughts do others have on this matter? I'll be the first to say that I may be missing a simple answer somewhere.

### Introduction The Law of Moses/Torah of Moses are a body of commandments and laws which were given to the nation of Israel at Mount Sinai by God. Observant Jews continue to follow these laws as understood through rabbinic traditions and interpretations, while most major Christian denominations more or less do not. The Old Testament/Hebrew Bible contains many scriptures which seem to indicate that the Mosaic law is eternal and uses the same word used elsewhere that describes God being eternal: **Exodus 31:16–17 (NRSV)** indicates observance of the Sabbath is an eternal activity: > Therefore the Israelites shall keep the Sabbath, observing the Sabbath throughout their generations, as a **perpetual covenant**. It is a sign **forever** between me and the Israelites that in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he rested and was refreshed. **Leviticus 16:29-34** indicates Yom Kippur should be observed forever: > This shall be a statute to you **forever**: In the seventh month, on the tenth day of the month, you shall humble yourselves ... This shall be an **everlasting statute** for you, to make atonement for the Israelites once in the year for all their sins. And Moses did as the Lord had commanded him. **Deuteronomy 29:29** seems to indicate that all the words of the law should be followed for all time by the children of Israel: > The secret things belong to the Lord our God, but the revealed things belong to us and to our children **forever**, to observe all the words of this law. **Jeremiah 31:31** makes a promise that the Jews will have the Mosaic law written on their heart in the future: > The days are surely coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah. It will not be like the covenant that I made with their ancestors when I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt—a covenant that they broke, though I was their husband, says the Lord. But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: **I will put my law within them, and I will write it on their hearts**, and I will be their God, and they shall be my people. No longer shall they teach one another or say to each other, “Know the Lord,” for they shall all know me, from the least of them to the greatest, says the Lord, for I will forgive their iniquity and remember their sin no more. **Esther 9:28** says the celebration of Purim will never end: > These days should be remembered and kept throughout every generation, in every family, province, and city, and these days of Purim should never fall into disuse among the Jews, nor should the commemoration of these days cease among their descendants ### Question Do Christians believe that the Hebrew Bible prophesied that the commandments it called eternal would one day end? Is there an Old Testament basis for believing observance of the Mosaic law would not be forever? Views from all denominations welcome.

### Background Zechariah 12:10 is cited in the New Testament as an explicit prophecy for Jesus's crucifixion by the Gospel of John: > These things occurred so that the scripture might be fulfilled, “None of his bones shall be broken.” And again another passage of scripture says, “**They will look on the one whom they have pierced**.” *John 19:36-37 (NRSV)* Christians through the ages cite Zechariah 12:10 as one of the clearest prophecies of Jesus's death, down to the details of him being pierced. However a close reading of Zechariah 12, starting just a few verses earlier seems to indicate more to the prophecy than simply someone being pierced: > On that day **the Lord will shield the inhabitants of Jerusalem** so that the feeblest among them on that day shall be like David, and the house of David shall be like God, like the angel of the Lord, at their head. > > And **on that day I will seek to destroy all the nations that come against Jerusalem**. > > **And I will pour out a spirit of compassion and supplication on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem so that, when they look on the one[a] whom they have pierced**, they shall mourn for him as one mourns for an only child and weep bitterly over him as one weeps over a firstborn. *Zechariah 12:8-10 (NRSV)* Critically this passage appears to promise that Jerusalem will be divinely protected, and that the nations who come against Jerusalem will be destroyed by God. This is extremely curious since Jerusalem was famously destroyed a few years after Jesus's death. ### Question How do Christians who believe Zechariah 12:10 applies to Jesus interpret Zechariah 12:8 and 9? Do they believe Jerusalem was miraculously protected in 33 CE and her enemies destroyed? What parts of this passage actually came true in Jesus's time?

Some modern day charismatic teachers exercise a kind of prophecy that seems very similar to non-Christian psychic readings or secular cold reading techniques. One example is Shawn Bolz prophesying , compared to Deren Brown explaining psychic readings . What Biblical support do these Christians give for calling these techniques prophecy, and what Biblical support do they give for practicing them? ------- *Closely Related To:* 1. https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/34214/what-is-the-biblical-basis-for-modern-day-prophets 1. https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/50899/what-is-the-biblical-basis-for-schools-of-prophecy-where-people-learn-to-pro

In 1598 the Edict of Nantes was passed allowing Protestants to worship in Catholic France. But this Edict was revoked in 1685, and under the reign of King Louis XIV, there was extreme persecution of the Huguenots in southern France. Among the Huguenots were the charismatic Camisards known for their visions, prophecies, and speaking in tongues. There was a time of great fighting, with many Protestants fleeing the country of France...until emigration was outlawed, too. And much of the Camisard settlements were destroyed. Many were massacred by the French dragoons. Some were able to flee to England. Are there any existing charismatic Camisards that still meet in Protestant (Reformed) churches today, and practice the charismatic gifts? In France? In other nations? Or have they disappeared from the Church landscape?

Paul refers to a prophecy about Timothy > **1 Tim 1:18-19 ESV** Timothy, my son, I am giving you this command in keeping with the **prophecies once made about you**, so that by recalling them you may fight the battle well, holding on to faith and a good conscience, which some have rejected and so have suffered shipwreck with regard to the faith. Which prophecy is he talking about?

I was wondering which church denominations have a very strong emphasis in the prophecies of Daniel and Revelation since it seems they are linked to one another?

---------- God sent Jonah to prophesy to the Babylonian city of Nineveh, which he did with the greatest of reluctance, thereby effecting the largest mass conversion of a city up to that time. It's possible that Nineveh was a "random" city, but that's probably not the case, given its size and strategic importance. Instead, what made Nineveh significant enough to be chosen in God's eyes? Was Nineveh the "second" city of Babylon, after the capital, in the manner of New York City versus Washington D.C.? Did Nineveh have a "Sodom and Gomorrah" reputation, making it the worst city of Babylon? Was Nineveh unusually open and "cosmopolitan," thereby making it the easiest city to convert? Or was there some other reason that I have overlooked?

Some modern interpreters speculate that the “image of the beast” in Revelation 13:14–15 could refer to advanced technology such as humanoid robots or AI systems that appear to “speak” and exercise authority. Are there any established Christian denominations or theological traditions (historic or contemporary) that officially or commonly interpret the “image of the beast” as referring to robots, artificial intelligence, or other technological constructs? If so: - What is the scriptural basis they use for connecting Revelation 13 with AI or robotics? - How do they interpret the phrases “give breath to the image” and the image “speaking”? I’m looking for answers grounded in recognized denominational teachings, published statements, or works by theologians representing those traditions—not purely personal speculation.

I seem to recall reading in the Bible some years ago that there will come a time when *"sin will be out in the open."* However, I have since tried to find it to no avail. Does this prophecy occur in the Bible; or perhaps, did I find it someplace else? Does anyone know where this may have came from?

Most Christians and leaders seem to quote inspirational verses out of the prophetic books consistently. The issue is that they are taking lots of verses out of context. Recently, I've been wondering how we correctly read the 17 prophetic books. These books seem to only be written for 1. the people at the time 2. descriptions of the Messiah 3. descriptions of The New Heaven and New Earth Outside of this, I have also seen that these prophecies include 1. Double References (Isaiah 14 talking about Satan and a king) 2. Insight into God's Creation (Jeremiah 4) [the Book of Job also does this, but that would of course be poetry and not prophecy] 3. Showing the character and demonstrations of God But what exactly does someone do when they want to read through the Book of Ezekiel or any other book? I have oftentimes been led of the Holy Spirit to see new things in the Prophetic Books, but for the most part, if I have to be honest, it seems like the entire Body of Christ just steers away from these books because of the level of confusion that comes from reading them. Why are they in the Bible? What do they do for New Testament Believers? How does it bring us into the full stature of Christ (2 Timothy 3:16-17)? I understand that there is historical evidence for the prophecies and that we can see what makes God angry, but there has got to be more reasoning behind having 17 books written in this style than just those things. What should I be able to pick up from these books that is beyond what my eyes can see? I cannot find a single answer online, so please know that I did my research before posting here. Thank you.

According to fundamental Belief 24: (Christ’s ministry in the Heavenly Sanctuary) the SDA believe that Christ began his investigative judgement in 1844.This they refer to as the end of 2300 days of Daniel's prophecy. Daniel 8:14 NASB >14 And he said to me, “For 2,300 evenings and mornings; then the sanctuary will be [q]properly restored.” In the prophecy Daniel refers to the restoration of the sanctuary which the SDA clear identify as the heavenly sanctuary.But its not clear in Daniel's prophecy which one he was referring to.Should the text be understood from a literal or non literal sense. How can one understand this interpretation of Christ ministry in the heavenly sanctuary?

Whilst there are other questions I have found similar to this one, they do not specifically seem to explain the exact start date for the 70 week prophecy in Daniel regarding the command to rebuild Jerusalem. If we read the Daniel 9:25 prophecy, verse 25 talks about "**restore and rebuild Jerusalem**". **Cyrus decrees in Ezra 1 to Return to Jerusalem and Build the Temple** > In the first year of Cyrus king of Persia, to fulfill the word of the > LORD spoken through Jeremiah, the LORD stirred the spirit of Cyrus > king of Persia to send a proclamation throughout his kingdom and to > put it in writing as follows: > > 2“This is what Cyrus king of Persia says: > > ‘The LORD, the God of heaven, who has given me all the kingdoms of the > earth, has appointed me to build a house for Him at Jerusalem in Judah. Zerubbabel is among those who return to carry out this decree. **Enemies of the tribes obtain a decree to stop construction** King Artaxerxes, in the first year of his reign, after being told by the "enemies of Judah and Ephraim" and also consulting the original decree given by Cyrus, believes the Israelites are in breach of said decree (in that only the Temple may be built) and stops the entire process. > *Ezra 4 12 "Let it be known to the king that the Jews who came from you to us have returned to Jerusalem. And they are rebuilding that > rebellious and wicked city, restoring its walls, and repairing its > foundations." 21 Now, therefore, issue an order for these men to stop, > so that this city will not be rebuilt until I so order.* We obviously know that he was told a falsehood by the enemies of Judah and Ephraim about what was actually going on in Jerusalem in that they were not rebuilding city walls as Artaxerxes was led to believe, however, he stopped the process nonetheless. Moving forward in history...we know in Ezra 6, after the death of Artaxerxes, construction restarted by Zerubbabel, and that King Darius was approached by Tattenai the governor of the region west of the Euphrates to confirm the decree to rebuild the Temple in Jerusalem. The response from Darius: > Exra 6:1 Thus King Darius ordered a search of the archives stored in the > treasury of Babylon. 2And a scroll was found in the fortress of > Ecbatana, in the province of Media, with the following written on it: > > Memorandum: > > 3In the first year of King Cyrus, he issued a decree concerning the > house of God in Jerusalem: > > Let the house be rebuilt as a place for offering sacrifices, and let > its foundations be firmly laid. It is to be sixty cubits high and > sixty cubits wide,a 4with three layers of cut stones and one of > timbers. The costs are to be paid from the royal treasury. > > 5Furthermore, the gold and silver articles of the house of God, which > Nebuchadnezzar took from the temple in Jerusalem and carried to > Babylon, must also be returned to the temple in Jerusalem and > deposited in the house of God. > > 6Therefore Darius decreed: > > To Tattenai governor of the region west of the Euphrates,b > Shethar-bozenai, and your associates and officials in the region: > > You must stay away from that place! 7Leave this work on the house of > God alone. Let the governor and elders of the Jews rebuild this house > of God on its original site. **Ezra obtains letters from Artaxerxes and returns from Babylon** Ezra is granted authority by king Artaxerxes in the 7th year of his reign. However, it appears to me that the letter given to Ezra by the kind at that time is still only for Temple, its services, and for the self governance of Judah. It does not appear to make any reference to the rebuilding of the city itself. > Ezra 7:12 Artaxerxes, king of kings. > > To Ezra the priest, the scribe of the Law of the God of heaven: > > Greetings.d > > 13I hereby decree that any volunteers among the Israelites in my > kingdom, including the priests and Levites, may go up with you to > Jerusalem. 14You are sent by the king and his seven counselors to > evaluate Judah and Jerusalem according to the Law of your God, which > is in your hand. > *Ezra7: 23 Whatever is commanded by the God of heaven must be done diligently for His house.* Some 12 or 13 years later, in the 20th year of Artaxerxes reign, Nehemiah the cupbearer asks the king for permission to **rebuild the walls and gates of the city** > *Nehemiah 2:4 “...If it pleases the king, and if your servant has found favor in your sight, I ask that you send me to Judah, to the > city where my fathers are buried, so that I may rebuild it.” 7 I also > said to him, “If it pleases the king, may letters be given to me for > the governors west of the Euphrates,b so that they will grant me safe > passage until I reach Judah. 8And may I have a letter to Asaph, keeper > of the king’s forest, so that he will give me timber to make beams for > the gates of the citadel to the temple, for the city wall, and for the > house I will occupy.”* My point of interest is the original prophecy in Daniel 9 stating **restore and rebuild Jerusalem**. The decree given by Cyrus is only for the Temple, then Nehemiah is given authority to build the city walls and gates. Finally, remember the prophecy given in Isaiah 44): > 26 who confirms the message of His servant and fulfills the counsel of > His messengers, who says of Jerusalem, ‘She will be inhabited,’ and of > the cities of Judah, ‘They will be rebuilt, and I will restore their > ruins,’ 27who says to the depths of the sea, ‘Be dry, and I will dry > up your currents,’ 28who says of Cyrus, ‘My shepherd will fulfill all > that I desire,’ who says of Jerusalem, ‘She will be rebuilt,’ and of > the temple, ‘Let its foundation be laid.’ Which of the above is the official decree that fulfills the explanation of the prophecy by the angel Gabriel in Daniel 9:25? 1. The first decree given to build the Temple by Cyrus in 539 B.C and overseen by Zerubbabel (Cyrus lived 600-530 B.C) 2. the second decree given by Darius the Great 522-486 B.C (what year was this decree given... 521 B.C?) 3. The authority given to Ezra by Artaxerxes in 7th year of his reign (457 B.C) 4. or the letters given to Nehemiah by Artexerxes to build the city walls and gates? (445 B.C) Dates for the above are based on Wikipedia (Cyrus The Great , Darius The Great or Hystaspes , Artaxerxes I )

Hosea 3:4-5 says that there will be a period of time that the children of Israel will have no king, nor sacrifices, nor *efod* or *terafim*. It also promises a restoration of Israel after this period: > כִּ֣י ׀ יָמִ֣ים רַבִּ֗ים יֵֽשְׁבוּ֙ בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֵ֥ין מֶ֙לֶךְ֙ וְאֵ֣ין שָׂ֔ר וְאֵ֥ין זֶ֖בַח וְאֵ֣ין מַצֵּבָ֑ה וְאֵ֥ין אֵפ֖וֹד וּתְרָפִֽים > אַחַ֗ר יָשֻׁ֙בוּ֙ בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל וּבִקְשׁוּ֙ אֶת־יְהֹוָ֣ה אֱלֹהֵיהֶ֔ם וְאֵ֖ת דָּוִ֣יד מַלְכָּ֑ם וּפָחֲד֧וּ אֶל־יְהֹוָ֛ה וְאֶל־טוּב֖וֹ בְּאַחֲרִ֥ית הַיָּמִֽים > For the children of *Yisra᾽el* shall remain for many days, having no king, nor prince, nor sacrifice, nor pillar, nor *efod*, nor *terafim* > afterwards the children of *Yisra᾽el* shall return, and seek the Lord their G-d, and David their king; and shall come trembling to the Lord and his goodness in the latter days (Koren T'nakh) What time period is being mentioned here? There have been a few times where there has been no king of Israel, which is Hosea referring to according to Protestants?

## Background: It has been a Christian belief that Jesus would return to Earth since the earliest days of the religion. The 1st century Pauline epistle to the Thessalonians says: > For the Lord himself **will descend from heaven** with a cry of command, with the voice of an archangel, and with the sound of the trumpet of God *- 1 Thessalonians 4:16–17* The 4th century Nicene Creed contains the second coming as a creed of belief: > **He will come again in glory** to judge the living and the dead, > and his kingdom will have no end. Christians have also taught that this second coming will be when several as of yet unfulfilled messianic prophecies will be fulfilled by Jesus. Justin Martyr makes this point in the 2nd century *Dialogue with Trypho*: > And it was prophesied by Jacob the patriarch that there would be **two advents** of Christ, and that in the first He would suffer, and that after He came there would be neither prophet nor king in your nation (I proceeded), and that the nations who believed in the suffering Christ would look for His future appearance ... (*- Ch. 52 Dialog with Trypho*, emphasis added) > But I and others, who are right-minded Christians on all points, are assured that there **will be a resurrection of the dead, and a thousand years in Jerusalem, which will then be built, adorned, and enlarged, [as] the prophets Ezekiel and Isaiah and others declare** ... (*- Ch. 80 Dialog with Trypho*, emphasis added) ## Unfulfilled prophecies: *Dialogue* cites one of these. These unfulfilled messianic prophecies generally (since not all Christians agree that these will occur in the future, but breezing through Christian literature indicates most believe one or more of these will occur post second-coming) include: - Building the Third Temple, restoration of temple services (Ezekiel 37:26–28, Ezekiel 46) - Ingathering of the Jews to Israel (Isaiah 43:5–6) - World peace and end of war (Isaiah 2:4) - Universal knowledge of the God of Israel, cessation of religious teaching (Zechariah 14:9, Jeremiah 31:34) ## Second coming? What are the indicators in the unfulfilled prophecies that they will occur in a 'second coming'? How do second coming believers (specifically those who believe some messianic prophecies will be fulfilled in the second coming) differentiate the second coming from a failure to fulfill these prophecies?

Until now I have found the following end times Bible passages: - Daniel 7,8,10,11,12 - Joel 2:28-32 - Matthew 24 - Mark 13 - Luke 21:5-36 - 2 Peter 3:1-13 - 1 Corinthians 15:12-58 - 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 - 1 Thessalonians 5:1-11 - 2 Thessalonians 2:1-12 - 1 Timothy 4:1-5 - 2 Timothy 3:1-9 - Revelation 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Are there any others?

### Introduction In the Hebrew Bible, the prophet Elijah is described as being taken bodily into heaven: 2 Kings 2:11: > “As they continued walking and talking, suddenly a chariot of fire appeared with horses of fire, and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven.” Later prophecy anticipates his return before the coming of the day of the LORD: Malachi 3:23–24 (Hebrew numbering; 4:5–6 in most English translations): > “Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the great and dreadful day of the LORD comes. He will turn the hearts of fathers to their children, and the hearts of children to their fathers, lest I come and strike the land with a curse.” In Jewish tradition, this verse gave rise to the belief that Elijah would return as a forerunner of the Messiah. This is reflected in classical sources such as *Mishnah Eduyot* 8:7 (“Elijah will come to make peace in the world”) and *Pirkei de-Rabbi Eliezer* 43, which depicts Elijah announcing the coming redemption. The New Testament also seems to contain this expectation. Jesus identifies John the Baptist as one who “is Elijah who was to come” (Matthew 11:14; cf. 17:10–13), though John himself denies being Elijah (John 1:21). Christian traditions have variously interpreted this tension. ### Question How do Protestant theological traditions understand the prophecy of Elijah’s return in Malachi 4:5–6? Specifically: - Do mainstream Protestant interpretations hold that the prophecy was fulfilled in John the Baptist (a typological or spiritual fulfillment)? - Do some view it as partially fulfilled, expecting a future literal return of Elijah before the Second Coming of Christ? - Is it regarded as entirely future, awaiting a physical reappearance of Elijah in eschatological events (e.g., linked to the “two witnesses” of Revelation 11)? - Or something else?

The verse reads (KJV): > “And he shall stand and feed in the strength of the LORD, in the majesty of the name of the LORD his God; and they shall abide: for now shall he be great unto the ends of the earth.” I understand this verse is tied to the prophecy of the Messiah being born in Bethlehem. However, the wording “**his** God” raises questions for me in the context of the Trinity. I am following Chuck Smith's Blue Letter Bible (verse by verse commentary) but he doesn’t address this phrasing. Matthew Henry's touches on it, suggesting that the Messiah “speaks with God’s authority,” referencing Matthew 7:28 (“because he was teaching them as one who had authority”). This seems related to other biblical patterns where God’s people or godly figures are “called by God’s name,” such as Daniel 1:19, Jeremiah 15:16, Jeremiah 14:9, Isaiah 43:6, and Acts 15:17. Another example is Exodus 23:21, where the angel (or Jesus, if seen as a Christophany) “carries God’s name.” I also understand that Jesus can address God as “My God” (Matthew 27:46), but in Micah, the author doesn’t seem concerned about drawing a strong distinction between the Messianic figure and God. I would greatly appreciate insight into this phrasing in Micah 5:4 — why does it say “His God”? What theological or textual reasons might explain it? Thank you in advance.

Does anyone have any good resources on Astronomical dating of Biblical prophecy? I have been looking into how Daniel and John used Astronomical "signs" to date their prophecies and have made several interesting connections. But I need more information on how these prophets use the descriptions of their visions to relate with astronomical positions of the stars and planets.