In common parlance, prophecy is often considered to be "predicting the future." For some, it conjures up images of telephone psychics and the like. Others might envision a crystal ball. It generally has a mystical connotation of some type. On the other hand, the "prophets" of Scripture (e.g. Malachi, Habakkuk, Jonah) seem to be doing something different. Making explicit predictions about the future seems to be a small part of their function as a "prophet." So my question is: **Biblically speaking, what exactly is prophecy?** Is there a Biblical definition that matches the actual practices of the prophets? ------ *If possible, please support your answers using the 66 books of Scripture that are found in the Protestant Bible.*

Revelation 13:18 (KJV) — *“Here is wisdom. Let him that hath understanding count the number of the beast: for it is the number of a man; and his number is Six hundred threescore and six.”* Some Christians point to persistent physical and time-related patterns in creation and human measurement systems that seem to feature “666,” such as: - **Earth’s axial tilt: 90 ∘ − 23.4 ∘ ≈ 66.6 ∘ 90 ∘ −23.4 ∘ ≈66.6 ∘** - **Earth’s orbital speed: ≈ 66,600 mph (depending on units and rounding)** - **Calendar division: 6 × 60 × 60 seconds in a day’s time measurement pattern** - **Barcodes: The guard bars in UPC codes resemble the digit “6” in the barcode system, producing a “666” pattern** Since Revelation calls believers to “count” the number, could such existing patterns be indicators that we are already living in the “beast system”? Or should these be understood as coincidences or unrelated to the prophecy?

**1 Chronicles 25:1-5 makes a point of identifying Asaph, Heman, and Jeduthun as prophets/seers.** This suggests that some of the psalms in Psalms are prophetic, anticipating future events. Several of these psalms are recognized as messianic, but largely because the NT treats them as such. But what about non-messianic psalms? **Has anyone developed a candidate list of (non-messianic) psalms which should be approached as prophetic, anticipating--at the time they were published--events which were yet future?** **Perhaps Psalm 137 is one of these?** It is commonly claimed that this psalm is exilic or even post-exilic, due to the initial reference to Babylon, remembrance of Zion, remembrance of the treatment of their captors, etc.1 Yet 137:5 is concerned that one might forget Jerusalem, which seems to exclude a post-exilic situation, unless the concern is that they might forget Jerusalem's former glory; but that goes beyond what is said. Further, 137:8 indicates that Babylon had not yet been destroyed. In some ways this psalm offers parallels to Isaiah 40-66 (esp. Isa 47) which, on the premise that there was a singular writer of Isaiah, prophetically speaks from a perspective of those already in exile. 1 Examples are Kidner and Belcher: "This psalm needs no title to announce that its provenance was the Babylonian exile." Derek Kidner, *Psalms 73–150: An Introduction and Commentary*, Tyndale Old Testament Commentaries (Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press, 1975), 495. "Psalm 137 arises out of the experience of the community in exile in Babylon following the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple in 587 BC. Although the author may be looking back on that experience the memory is fresh and the historical situation is still unsettled." Richard P. Belcher Jr., The Messiah and the Psalms: Preaching Christ from All the Psalms (Ross-shire, Scotland: Mentor, 2006), 76.

***Zionism*** (political nationalism) certainly was not begun by Dispensationalists; and the occurrence of the Halocaust did give impetus to it. But Dispensationalist have strongly embraced it. And Zionist Dispensationalists often quote the Genesis 12 verse, ***God will bless those who bless Israel, and curse those who curse Israel*** to justify their support, spiritually, financially, and militarily, for the nation of modern Israel. >I will bless those who bless you, and whoever curses you I will curse, and all peoples on earth will be blessed through you. (Genesis 12:3) This is even though the majority of the Jews in Israel are either ***secular, or anti-Christian***. And are seen to persecute Christians living there. (Statements by King of Jordon, and news reports on TBN network who reluctantly received his report until they saw videos themselves of Jews disrupting Christian rites). And ***Christian Palestinians*** are not even on their radar screen! So how do ***protestant orthodox Christian scholars*** deal with this seminal verse about blessing Israel in contrast to the Dispensational interpretation? Which other scriptures do non-Disp. Christians appeal to, that causes them to treat ***all nation equally***, with love and mercy, without referring to any particular nation or political entity?

Regarding the passage Mt 2:13-18. Joseph flees to Egypt with Jesus and Mary after being warned by an angel that Jesus’ life is in danger. Herod then kills all the male children less than 2 years old in and around Bethlehem (8 miles *south* of Jerusalem). Matthew calls this tragic event the fulfillment of Je 31:15: > A cry is heard in Ramah… Rachel weeps for her children… for her children are gone. However, OT verses and sources from bibleatlas.org point to Ramah being 8+ miles *north* of Jerusalem. How can the verses in Matthew and Jeremiah refer to the same place if they are 16+ miles apart? What am I missing?

There are a handful of prophecies that Christians consider as having "dual fulfillments" - one at the time, and one in the future. Matthew 24, Isaiah 7:14, etc. are examples. Where did this method of interpretation originate, and more importantly upon what foundation / first-principles does it rest? One could say, let's give it three interpretations, or let's say it was a failed prophecy, or let's say the original prophecy was fulfilled - but in a different way, etc. but instead Christians choose to utilize this Dual Fulfillment method on many prophecies. The explanation I've come across typically goes something like: "the first prophecy did not fully come about, so we'll see it fully happen sometime in the future." But, that's an obvious False Dilemma , as there are many other ways to explain the first prophecy not being "fully fulfilled". Would appreciate someone with more expertise chiming in.

In reading biblical prophecies about the end times—particularly in books like Daniel, Matthew 24, and Revelation—it's clear that major events such as the final judgment, the defeat of Satan, and the creation of a new heaven and new earth are prophesied. But does the Bible actually predict the end of time itself, or is it more accurate to say it describes the end of evil and the restoration of righteousness? Do any Christian traditions interpret these eschatological passages as pointing to a timeless eternity after judgment, or is time understood to continue in a renewed creation? Relevant passages might include Revelation 21–22, 1 Corinthians 15:24–28, and others.

Deuteronomy 18:21–22 says that if a prophet’s words do not come to pass, then the Lord has not spoken through them. This seems to suggest that fulfilled prophecy is a sign of true prophecy. Some Christians also believe that Satan does not know the future in the way God does (i.e., perfectly and completely), so any accurate future prediction would necessarily come from God. However, in Matthew 24:24, Jesus warns of false prophets performing great signs and wonders that could deceive even the elect if that were possible. Does this imply that even seemingly accurate future predictions could come from deceptive sources? So my question is: Can fulfilled predictions about the future be used as a reliable test to determine whether a prophet is truly from God, considering the claim that Satan does not know the future? Or are there additional biblical criteria that must be used to discern a true prophet?

Numbers 24:17 says: >*“I see him, but not now; I behold him, but not near. A star shall come out of Jacob, and a scepter shall rise out of Israel; he shall crush the skulls of Moab and break down all the sons of Sheth.”* This verse is commonly understood by some Christian traditions to be a Messianic prophecy pointing to Jesus Christ—with the “star” and “scepter” symbolizing His **divine authority** and **kingship**. However, the latter part of the verse includes a violent image: >*“he shall crush the skulls of Moab.”* According to those who believe Jesus is the fulfillment of this prophecy, how did he fulfill this part of the verse? This is because this verse was fulfilled in David who led his armies against the Moabites and conquered them, so how do they reconcile that?

### Isaiah 7 Background Isaiah 7:14 is famously quoted by the Gospel of Matthew (Matt 1:23) as a prophecy about Jesus’s birth: > She will bear a son, and you are to name him Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.” All this took place to fulfill what had been spoken by the Lord through the prophet: “**Look, the virgin shall become pregnant and give birth to a son, and they shall name him Emmanuel**,” which means, “God is with us.” - Matthew 1:22-23 (NRSV) Many Christian apologists recognize that the events of Isaiah 7 and the prophecy of the birth of the child had an application in the time of Isaiah during the Syro-Ephraimite war , with the maturation of the child marking the victory of Judah over Syria: > Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Look, the young woman is with child and shall bear a son and shall name him Immanuel. He shall eat curds and honey by the time he knows how to refuse the evil and choose the good. **For before the child knows how to refuse the evil and choose the good, the land before whose two kings you are in dread will be deserted**. The Lord will bring on you and on your people and on your ancestral house such days as have not come since the day that Ephraim departed from Judah—the king of Assyria.” - Isaiah 7:14-17 (NRSV) Those who believe that there was an immediate context and fulfillment of this prophecy believe that it was later re-fulfilled in the birth of Jesus as a “dual-fulfillment ”, such as Dr. Michael Brown . ### Two Virgin Births? Do Christians who believe in a dual-fulfillment of Isaiah 7 believe that there were two virgin births? If so, do they believe that the first virgin born child was some kind of divine figure like Jesus? If there were not two virgin births, how was this prophecy fulfilled twice?

The final words of the Book of Haggai are: > The word of the Lord came a second time to Haggai on the twenty-fourth > day of the month, “Speak to Zerub′babel, governor of Judah, saying, I > am about to shake the heavens and the earth, and to overthrow the > throne of kingdoms; I am about to destroy the strength of the kingdoms > of the nations, and overthrow the chariots and their riders; and the > horses and their riders shall go down, every one by the sword of his > fellow. On that day, says the Lord of hosts, I will take you, O > Zerub′babel my servant, the son of She-al′ti-el, says the Lord, and > make you like a signet ring; for I have chosen you, says the Lord of > hosts.” The reference to being chosen as God's "signet ring" at least evokes a sense that the prophet predicted a restoration of royal authority approved by God (see Jeremiah 22:24). Zerubbabel was a descendant of King David and the grandson of one of Judah's last kings. Given his lineage and the powerful words of promise above, is Haggai expressing a messianic hope in Zerubbabel? (Note: I mean this in the sense of the Jewish messiah, who restores the throne of David, not the Christian sense, in which the messiah dies for the sins of mankind.) Related questions: whether or not this is a messianic prophecy, why does it seem it was not fulfilled. Were there events in Zerubbabel's time that fulfilled the prophecy? In what sense did he become God's "signet ring?"

What is the Catholic Church's view of Anne Catherine Emmerich - can her visions and prophecies be trusted? Is she a true prophet by the biblical standard? *(This question has been prompted by the comments to the answer to [What did the serpent look like?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/7632/what-did-the-serpent-look-like/31040#31040)*)

### Introduction Joseph Smith is the founder of Mormonism and considered to be an a prophet of God by the LDS Church. Latter Day Saints believe that the Christian bible (Old and New Testaments) predicts the coming of Joseph Smith , that he brought forth the Book of Mormon, restored a lost priesthood, and established the true church. On the other hand, non-LDS Christians call Smith a false prophet and accuse him of theological fraud. ### Question What reasons do non-LDS Christians give for calling Joseph Smith a "false prophet"? What criteria do they use to determine Joseph Smith is not a true Christian prophet?

A recent question and an older question have accrued several answers with 'false' prophecies of Joseph Smith. Below is a compilation of them: 1. D&C 84:2-5,31 Prophecy that the temple would be built in Missouri within Smith's Generation >2 Yea, the word of the Lord concerning his church, established in the last days for the restoration of his people, as he has spoken by the mouth of his prophets, and for the gathering of his saints to stand upon Mount Zion, which shall be the city of New Jerusalem. > >3 Which city shall be built, beginning at the temple lot, which is appointed by the finger of the Lord, in the western boundaries of the State of Missouri, and dedicated by the hand of Joseph Smith, Jun., and others with whom the Lord was well pleased. > >4 Verily this is the word of the Lord, that the city New Jerusalem shall be built by the gathering of the saints, beginning at this place, even the place of the temple, which temple shall be reared in this generation. > >5 For verily this generation shall not all pass away until an house shall be built unto the Lord, and a cloud shall rest upon it, which cloud shall be even the glory of the Lord, which shall fill the house. > >31 Therefore, as I said concerning the sons of Moses—for the sons of Moses and also the sons of Aaron shall offer an acceptable offering and sacrifice in the house of the Lord, which house shall be built unto the Lord in this generation, upon the consecrated spot as I have appointed 2. D&C 87:1-3 1832 Joseph Smith prophesied that the United States civil war would eventually engulf all nations >1 Verily, **thus saith the Lord** concerning the wars that will shortly come to pass, beginning at the rebellion of South Carolina, which will eventually terminate in the death and misery of many souls; > >2 And the time will come that war will be poured out upon all nations, beginning at this place. > >3 For behold, the Southern States shall be divided against the Northern States, and the Southern States will call on other nations, even the nation of Great Britain, as it is called, and they shall also call upon other nations, in order to defend themselves against other nations; and then war shall be poured out upon all nations. 3. History of the Church, vol. 2, p. 182 1835 Joseph Smith prophesied the Lord’s return within 56 years >President Smith then stated that the meeting had been called, because God had commanded it; and it was made known to him by vision and by the Holy Spirit. He then gave a relation of some of the circumstances attending while journeying to Zion—our trials, sufferings; and said God had not designed all this for nothing, but He had it in remembrance yet; and it was the will of God that those who went Zion, with a determination to lay down their lives, if necessary, should be ordained to the ministry, and go forth to prune the vineyard for the last time, or the coming of the Lord, which was nigh—even fifty-six years should wind up the scene. 4. History of the Church, vol. 5, pg. 394 1843 Joseph Smith prophesied that the United States government would be overthrown and wasted within a few years if they refused to redress the wrongs committed against the Mormons in Missouri >**I prophesy in the name of the Lord God** of Israel, unless the United States redress the wrongs committed upon the Saints in the state of Missouri and punish the crimes committed by her officers that in a few years the government will be utterly overthrown and wasted, and there will not be so much as a potsherd left 5. D&C 114:1 Apr 1838 David Patten would go on a mission (he died October 1838 before he could) >1 Verily thus saith the Lord: It is wisdom in my servant David W. Patten, that he settle up all his business as soon as he possibly can, and make a disposition of his merchandise, that he may perform a mission unto me next spring, in company with others, even twelve including himself, to testify of my name and bear glad tidings unto all the world. 6. History of the Church, vol 6, p 116 1843 >While discussing the petition to Congress, I prophesied, by virtue of the holy Priesthood vested in me, and in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ, that, if Congress will not hear our petition and grant us protection, they shall be broken up as a government How do LDS explain how Joseph Smith is a prophet when there are false prophecies?

Some Christians hold the view that Jesus was the final prophet in a unique or ultimate sense. However, passages like 1 Corinthians 12:10 mention that the Holy Spirit gives some believers the gift of prophecy: >"to another miraculous powers, to another prophecy, to another distinguishing between spirits, to another speaking in different kinds of tongues..." (NIV) If Jesus is considered the last prophet, how do those who hold that view understand the ongoing operation of prophecy in the Church? What terminology is used for individuals who exhibit this spiritual gift, if not “prophet”?

### Introduction The Law of Moses/Torah of Moses are a body of commandments and laws which were given to the nation of Israel at Mount Sinai by God. Observant Jews continue to follow these laws as understood through rabbinic traditions and interpretations, while most major Christian denominations more or less do not. The Old Testament/Hebrew Bible contains many scriptures which seem to indicate that the Mosaic law is eternal and uses the same word used elsewhere that describes God being eternal: **Exodus 31:16–17 (NRSV)** indicates observance of the Sabbath is an eternal activity: > Therefore the Israelites shall keep the Sabbath, observing the Sabbath throughout their generations, as a **perpetual covenant**. It is a sign **forever** between me and the Israelites that in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he rested and was refreshed. **Leviticus 16:29-34** indicates Yom Kippur should be observed forever: > This shall be a statute to you **forever**: In the seventh month, on the tenth day of the month, you shall humble yourselves ... This shall be an **everlasting statute** for you, to make atonement for the Israelites once in the year for all their sins. And Moses did as the Lord had commanded him. **Deuteronomy 29:29** seems to indicate that all the words of the law should be followed for all time by the children of Israel: > The secret things belong to the Lord our God, but the revealed things belong to us and to our children **forever**, to observe all the words of this law. **Jeremiah 31:31** makes a promise that the Jews will have the Mosaic law written on their heart in the future: > The days are surely coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah. It will not be like the covenant that I made with their ancestors when I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt—a covenant that they broke, though I was their husband, says the Lord. But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: **I will put my law within them, and I will write it on their hearts**, and I will be their God, and they shall be my people. No longer shall they teach one another or say to each other, “Know the Lord,” for they shall all know me, from the least of them to the greatest, says the Lord, for I will forgive their iniquity and remember their sin no more. ### Question Do Christians believe that the Hebrew Bible prophesied that the commandments it called eternal would one day end? Is there an Old Testament basis for believing observance of the Mosaic law would not be forever? Views from all denominations welcome.

According to fundamental Belief 24: (Christ’s ministry in the Heavenly Sanctuary) the SDA believe that Christ began his investigative judgement in 1844.This they refer to as the end of 2300 days of Daniel's prophecy. Daniel 8:14 NASB >14 And he said to me, “For 2,300 evenings and mornings; then the sanctuary will be [q]properly restored.” In the prophecy Daniel refers to the restoration of the sanctuary which the SDA clear identify as the heavenly sanctuary.But its not clear in Daniel's prophecy which one he was referring to.Should the text be understood from a literal or non literal sense. How can one understand this interpretation of Christ ministry in the heavenly sanctuary?

### Introduction Ezekiel 44-46 relates a prophecy about a restored Jerusalem with a temple which is quite different in dimensions (it's gigantic) from either the 1st or 2nd Temples. The Israelites are following the laws and regulations of God: > A new heart I will give you, and a new spirit I will put within you, and I will remove from your body the heart of stone and give you a heart of flesh. I will put my spirit within you and make you follow my statutes and be careful to observe my ordinances (Ezekiel 36:26-27) The people are ruled by a prince who is of the line of David: > I will set up over them one shepherd, my servant David, and he shall feed them; he shall feed them and be their shepherd. And I the Lord will be their God, and my servant David shall be prince among them; I the Lord have spoken. (Ezekiel 34:23-24) The prince provides various offering in the Temple for himself and the people: > “In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month, you shall celebrate the Festival of the Passover, and for seven days unleavened bread shall be eaten. On that day the prince shall provide for himself and all the people of the land a bull for a purification offering. And during the seven days of the festival he shall provide as a burnt offering to the Lord seven bulls and seven rams without blemish, on each of the seven days, and a male goat daily for a purification offering. He shall provide as a grain offering an ephah for each bull, an ephah for each ram, and a hin of oil to each ephah. In the seventh month, on the fifteenth day of the month and for the seven days of the festival, he shall make the same provision for purification offerings, burnt offerings, and grain offerings and for the oil. (Ezekiel 45:18-25) This Davidic prince will also have an inheritance and children to whom he may give to. He is not allowed to take from the people and give to his children: > “Thus says the Lord God: If the prince makes a gift to any of his sons out of his inheritance,[a] it shall belong to his sons; it is their holding by inheritance. But if he makes a gift out of his inheritance to one of his servants, it shall be his to the year of liberty; then it shall revert to the prince; only his sons may keep a gift from his inheritance. The prince shall not take any of the inheritance of the people, thrusting them out of their holding; he shall give his sons their inheritance out of his own holding, so that none of my people shall be dispossessed of their holding.” (Ezekiel 46:16-18) ### Identity? Traditional Jewish interpretation of these passages is that the prince is the promised Messiah. Who do Christian denominations believe this prince is? Do Christians believe this is a prophecy of the future? If so, why are sacrifices occurring in the future?

**Do you know any prophecies in the books between Malachi 400s BC, and the New Testament?** > Matthew 11 13 For all the Prophets and the Law prophesied until John. > 14 And if you are willing to accept it, he is the Elijah who was to > come. 15 Whoever has ears, let them hear. Malachi 4 is the last book, and last chapter of the protestant canon > 5 “See, I will send the prophet Elijah to you before that great and > dreadful day of the Lord comes. 6 He will turn the hearts of the > parents to their children, and the hearts of the children to their > parents; or else I will come and strike the land with total > destruction.” Matthew could be saying the last prophecy in the Old Testament is about Elijah/John the Baptist which is correct. The only books written between Malachi, and the New Testament is 1,2,3,4 Maccabees, and Wisdom of Ben Sira none have (original) prophecies. 2 Maccabees has a prophecy but he is quoting something Jeremiah said (it was about Pentecost, and Rev 11). The other "deuterocanon" books were written before Malachi. The great terrible day of the lord part in Malachi was about 70 AD as John the Baptist was just before that. I have never heard that argument before. Does someone agree it is saying there was no prophecy between Malachi, and the New Testament? Zechariah 13 prophecies a period of time with no prophets. The banishing idols from the land would be Maccabees where the Israelites destroyed all the Greek idols that had been set up. > 2 “On that day, I will banish the names of the idols from the land, > and they will be remembered no more,” declares the Lord Almighty. “I > will remove both the prophets and the spirit of impurity from the > land. 3 And if anyone still prophesies, their father and mother, to > whom they were born, will say to them, ‘You must die, because you have > told lies in the Lord’s name.’ Then their own parents will stab the > one who prophesies. > > 4 “On that day every prophet will be ashamed of their prophetic > vision. They will not put on a prophet’s garment of hair in order to > deceive. 5 Each will say, ‘I am not a prophet. I am a farmer; the land > has been my livelihood since my youth.[a]’ 6 If someone asks, ‘What > are these wounds on your body[b]?’ they will answer, ‘The wounds I was > given at the house of my friends.’ Although other parts of Zechariah 13 are about Jesus that part could have been Maccabees. Or it could be about the Judean Zealots 66-73 AD. They killed each other. They could have been saying that kind of stuff in the temple complex during their wars. The 2/3 1/3 fits Maccabees though where a lot were killed but the ones that survived were faithful to God, and won the battles. Or it could be 70 AD but 1 million died 70 ad (Josephus) which means 500,000 Judean Christians would have had to survive which sounds like too much. Where do you think those Zechariah prophecies happened?

### LDS Prophecy Joseph Smith made the following prophecy predicting a temple to be built in Independence, Missouri: Doctrines and Covenants 84:5 : > For verily this generation shall not all pass away until an house shall be built unto the Lord, and a cloud shall rest upon it, which cloud shall be even the glory of the Lord, which shall fill the house. No LDS temple was ever constructed in Independence, and Mormons were driven out of the state. Non-LDS Christians point to this prophecy as a clear example of Joseph Smith failing the Deuteronomic test of a prophet . On the other hand, LDS Christians offer numerous explanations for this apparent discrepancy: - The prophecy was conditional, and was delayed because the Mormons were not faithful - "This generation" does not refer to a generation of people but to an age or dispensation - "This generation" does not refer to the generation of Joseph Smith's contemporaries, but to a later group - The prophecy did actually come true in the 19th century, because the "house" in 84:5 referred to the temple built in Kirtland, OH four years after the prophecy ### Gospel Prophecy The gospel of Matthew records another disputed prophecy: Matthew 24:29-34 : >29 Immediately after the suffering of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of heaven will be shaken. > >30 Then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in heaven, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see ‘the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven’ with power and great glory. > >31 And he will send out his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other. > >32 “From the fig tree learn its lesson: as soon as its branch becomes tender and puts forth its leaves, you know that summer is near. > >33 So also, when you see all these things, you know that he is near, at the very gates. > >34 **Truly I tell you, this generation will not pass away until all these things have taken place**. The apocalyptic events described in 24:29-31 did not occur within the lifetime of the listeners. The sun did not stop shining, and the 'Son of Man' did not appear in the clouds of heaven. Christians offer numerous explanations for this prophecy: - The prophecy was conditional on the people of Israel 'repenting' and accepting Jesus, and was delayed because this did not occur - "This generation" does not refer to a generation of people, but to a specific 'race' of people - "This generation" does not refer to the generation of Jesus's contemporaries, but to a later group - The prophecy did actually come true in the 1st Century when Jerusalem was destroyed (the 'Preterist' position') ### Question LDS Christians offer several resolutions for Joseph Smith's apparent prophetic mistake, and these explanations seem to have significant overlap with Christian explanations of Matthew 24. How do non-LDS Christians who reject D&C 84 as a false prophecy defend using the same explanations that Mormons do?