Some modern interpreters speculate that the “image of the beast” in Revelation 13:14–15 could refer to advanced technology such as humanoid robots or AI systems that appear to “speak” and exercise authority. Are there any established Christian denominations or theological traditions (historic or contemporary) that officially or commonly interpret the “image of the beast” as referring to robots, artificial intelligence, or other technological constructs? If so: - What is the scriptural basis they use for connecting Revelation 13 with AI or robotics? - How do they interpret the phrases “give breath to the image” and the image “speaking”? I’m looking for answers grounded in recognized denominational teachings, published statements, or works by theologians representing those traditions—not purely personal speculation.

I seem to recall reading in the Bible some years ago that there will come a time when *"sin will be out in the open."* However, I have since tried to find it to no avail. Does this prophecy occur in the Bible; or perhaps, did I find it someplace else? Does anyone know where this may have came from?

Most Christians and leaders seem to quote inspirational verses out of the prophetic books consistently. The issue is that they are taking lots of verses out of context. Recently, I've been wondering how we correctly read the 17 prophetic books. These books seem to only be written for 1. the people at the time 2. descriptions of the Messiah 3. descriptions of The New Heaven and New Earth Outside of this, I have also seen that these prophecies include 1. Double References (Isaiah 14 talking about Satan and a king) 2. Insight into God's Creation (Jeremiah 4) [the Book of Job also does this, but that would of course be poetry and not prophecy] 3. Showing the character and demonstrations of God But what exactly does someone do when they want to read through the Book of Ezekiel or any other book? I have oftentimes been led of the Holy Spirit to see new things in the Prophetic Books, but for the most part, if I have to be honest, it seems like the entire Body of Christ just steers away from these books because of the level of confusion that comes from reading them. Why are they in the Bible? What do they do for New Testament Believers? How does it bring us into the full stature of Christ (2 Timothy 3:16-17)? I understand that there is historical evidence for the prophecies and that we can see what makes God angry, but there has got to be more reasoning behind having 17 books written in this style than just those things. What should I be able to pick up from these books that is beyond what my eyes can see? I cannot find a single answer online, so please know that I did my research before posting here. Thank you.

According to fundamental Belief 24: (Christ’s ministry in the Heavenly Sanctuary) the SDA believe that Christ began his investigative judgement in 1844.This they refer to as the end of 2300 days of Daniel's prophecy. Daniel 8:14 NASB >14 And he said to me, “For 2,300 evenings and mornings; then the sanctuary will be [q]properly restored.” In the prophecy Daniel refers to the restoration of the sanctuary which the SDA clear identify as the heavenly sanctuary.But its not clear in Daniel's prophecy which one he was referring to.Should the text be understood from a literal or non literal sense. How can one understand this interpretation of Christ ministry in the heavenly sanctuary?

Whilst there are other questions I have found similar to this one, they do not specifically seem to explain the exact start date for the 70 week prophecy in Daniel regarding the command to rebuild Jerusalem. If we read the Daniel 9:25 prophecy, verse 25 talks about "**restore and rebuild Jerusalem**". **Cyrus decrees in Ezra 1 to Return to Jerusalem and Build the Temple** > In the first year of Cyrus king of Persia, to fulfill the word of the > LORD spoken through Jeremiah, the LORD stirred the spirit of Cyrus > king of Persia to send a proclamation throughout his kingdom and to > put it in writing as follows: > > 2“This is what Cyrus king of Persia says: > > ‘The LORD, the God of heaven, who has given me all the kingdoms of the > earth, has appointed me to build a house for Him at Jerusalem in Judah. Zerubbabel is among those who return to carry out this decree. **Enemies of the tribes obtain a decree to stop construction** King Artaxerxes, in the first year of his reign, after being told by the "enemies of Judah and Ephraim" and also consulting the original decree given by Cyrus, believes the Israelites are in breach of said decree (in that only the Temple may be built) and stops the entire process. > *Ezra 4 12 "Let it be known to the king that the Jews who came from you to us have returned to Jerusalem. And they are rebuilding that > rebellious and wicked city, restoring its walls, and repairing its > foundations." 21 Now, therefore, issue an order for these men to stop, > so that this city will not be rebuilt until I so order.* We obviously know that he was told a falsehood by the enemies of Judah and Ephraim about what was actually going on in Jerusalem in that they were not rebuilding city walls as Artaxerxes was led to believe, however, he stopped the process nonetheless. Moving forward in history...we know in Ezra 6, after the death of Artaxerxes, construction restarted by Zerubbabel, and that King Darius was approached by Tattenai the governor of the region west of the Euphrates to confirm the decree to rebuild the Temple in Jerusalem. The response from Darius: > Exra 6:1 Thus King Darius ordered a search of the archives stored in the > treasury of Babylon. 2And a scroll was found in the fortress of > Ecbatana, in the province of Media, with the following written on it: > > Memorandum: > > 3In the first year of King Cyrus, he issued a decree concerning the > house of God in Jerusalem: > > Let the house be rebuilt as a place for offering sacrifices, and let > its foundations be firmly laid. It is to be sixty cubits high and > sixty cubits wide,a 4with three layers of cut stones and one of > timbers. The costs are to be paid from the royal treasury. > > 5Furthermore, the gold and silver articles of the house of God, which > Nebuchadnezzar took from the temple in Jerusalem and carried to > Babylon, must also be returned to the temple in Jerusalem and > deposited in the house of God. > > 6Therefore Darius decreed: > > To Tattenai governor of the region west of the Euphrates,b > Shethar-bozenai, and your associates and officials in the region: > > You must stay away from that place! 7Leave this work on the house of > God alone. Let the governor and elders of the Jews rebuild this house > of God on its original site. **Ezra obtains letters from Artaxerxes and returns from Babylon** Ezra is granted authority by king Artaxerxes in the 7th year of his reign. However, it appears to me that the letter given to Ezra by the kind at that time is still only for Temple, its services, and for the self governance of Judah. It does not appear to make any reference to the rebuilding of the city itself. > Ezra 7:12 Artaxerxes, king of kings. > > To Ezra the priest, the scribe of the Law of the God of heaven: > > Greetings.d > > 13I hereby decree that any volunteers among the Israelites in my > kingdom, including the priests and Levites, may go up with you to > Jerusalem. 14You are sent by the king and his seven counselors to > evaluate Judah and Jerusalem according to the Law of your God, which > is in your hand. > *Ezra7: 23 Whatever is commanded by the God of heaven must be done diligently for His house.* Some 12 or 13 years later, in the 20th year of Artaxerxes reign, Nehemiah the cupbearer asks the king for permission to **rebuild the walls and gates of the city** > *Nehemiah 2:4 “...If it pleases the king, and if your servant has found favor in your sight, I ask that you send me to Judah, to the > city where my fathers are buried, so that I may rebuild it.” 7 I also > said to him, “If it pleases the king, may letters be given to me for > the governors west of the Euphrates,b so that they will grant me safe > passage until I reach Judah. 8And may I have a letter to Asaph, keeper > of the king’s forest, so that he will give me timber to make beams for > the gates of the citadel to the temple, for the city wall, and for the > house I will occupy.”* My point of interest is the original prophecy in Daniel 9 stating **restore and rebuild Jerusalem**. The decree given by Cyrus is only for the Temple, then Nehemiah is given authority to build the city walls and gates. Finally, remember the prophecy given in Isaiah 44): > 26 who confirms the message of His servant and fulfills the counsel of > His messengers, who says of Jerusalem, ‘She will be inhabited,’ and of > the cities of Judah, ‘They will be rebuilt, and I will restore their > ruins,’ 27who says to the depths of the sea, ‘Be dry, and I will dry > up your currents,’ 28who says of Cyrus, ‘My shepherd will fulfill all > that I desire,’ who says of Jerusalem, ‘She will be rebuilt,’ and of > the temple, ‘Let its foundation be laid.’ Which of the above is the official decree that fulfills the explanation of the prophecy by the angel Gabriel in Daniel 9:25? 1. The first decree given to build the Temple by Cyrus in 539 B.C and overseen by Zerubbabel (Cyrus lived 600-530 B.C) 2. the second decree given by Darius the Great 522-486 B.C (what year was this decree given... 521 B.C?) 3. The authority given to Ezra by Artaxerxes in 7th year of his reign (457 B.C) 4. or the letters given to Nehemiah by Artexerxes to build the city walls and gates? (445 B.C) Dates for the above are based on Wikipedia (Cyrus The Great , Darius The Great or Hystaspes , Artaxerxes I )

Hosea 3:4-5 says that there will be a period of time that the children of Israel will have no king, nor sacrifices, nor *efod* or *terafim*. It also promises a restoration of Israel after this period: > כִּ֣י ׀ יָמִ֣ים רַבִּ֗ים יֵֽשְׁבוּ֙ בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֵ֥ין מֶ֙לֶךְ֙ וְאֵ֣ין שָׂ֔ר וְאֵ֥ין זֶ֖בַח וְאֵ֣ין מַצֵּבָ֑ה וְאֵ֥ין אֵפ֖וֹד וּתְרָפִֽים > אַחַ֗ר יָשֻׁ֙בוּ֙ בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל וּבִקְשׁוּ֙ אֶת־יְהֹוָ֣ה אֱלֹהֵיהֶ֔ם וְאֵ֖ת דָּוִ֣יד מַלְכָּ֑ם וּפָחֲד֧וּ אֶל־יְהֹוָ֛ה וְאֶל־טוּב֖וֹ בְּאַחֲרִ֥ית הַיָּמִֽים > For the children of *Yisra᾽el* shall remain for many days, having no king, nor prince, nor sacrifice, nor pillar, nor *efod*, nor *terafim* > afterwards the children of *Yisra᾽el* shall return, and seek the Lord their G-d, and David their king; and shall come trembling to the Lord and his goodness in the latter days (Koren T'nakh) What time period is being mentioned here? There have been a few times where there has been no king of Israel, which is Hosea referring to according to Protestants?

## Background: It has been a Christian belief that Jesus would return to Earth since the earliest days of the religion. The 1st century Pauline epistle to the Thessalonians says: > For the Lord himself **will descend from heaven** with a cry of command, with the voice of an archangel, and with the sound of the trumpet of God *- 1 Thessalonians 4:16–17* The 4th century Nicene Creed contains the second coming as a creed of belief: > **He will come again in glory** to judge the living and the dead, > and his kingdom will have no end. Christians have also taught that this second coming will be when several as of yet unfulfilled messianic prophecies will be fulfilled by Jesus. Justin Martyr makes this point in the 2nd century *Dialogue with Trypho*: > And it was prophesied by Jacob the patriarch that there would be **two advents** of Christ, and that in the first He would suffer, and that after He came there would be neither prophet nor king in your nation (I proceeded), and that the nations who believed in the suffering Christ would look for His future appearance ... (*- Ch. 52 Dialog with Trypho*, emphasis added) > But I and others, who are right-minded Christians on all points, are assured that there **will be a resurrection of the dead, and a thousand years in Jerusalem, which will then be built, adorned, and enlarged, [as] the prophets Ezekiel and Isaiah and others declare** ... (*- Ch. 80 Dialog with Trypho*, emphasis added) ## Unfulfilled prophecies: *Dialogue* cites one of these. These unfulfilled messianic prophecies generally (since not all Christians agree that these will occur in the future, but breezing through Christian literature indicates most believe one or more of these will occur post second-coming) include: - Building the Third Temple, restoration of temple services (Ezekiel 37:26–28, Ezekiel 46) - Ingathering of the Jews to Israel (Isaiah 43:5–6) - World peace and end of war (Isaiah 2:4) - Universal knowledge of the God of Israel, cessation of religious teaching (Zechariah 14:9, Jeremiah 31:34) ## Second coming? What are the indicators in the unfulfilled prophecies that they will occur in a 'second coming'? How do second coming believers (specifically those who believe some messianic prophecies will be fulfilled in the second coming) differentiate the second coming from a failure to fulfill these prophecies?

Until now I have found the following end times Bible passages: - Daniel 7,8,10,11,12 - Joel 2:28-32 - Matthew 24 - Mark 13 - Luke 21:5-36 - 2 Peter 3:1-13 - 1 Corinthians 15:12-58 - 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 - 1 Thessalonians 5:1-11 - 2 Thessalonians 2:1-12 - 1 Timothy 4:1-5 - 2 Timothy 3:1-9 - Revelation 1, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22 Are there any others?

### Introduction In the Hebrew Bible, the prophet Elijah is described as being taken bodily into heaven: 2 Kings 2:11: > “As they continued walking and talking, suddenly a chariot of fire appeared with horses of fire, and Elijah went up by a whirlwind into heaven.” Later prophecy anticipates his return before the coming of the day of the LORD: Malachi 3:23–24 (Hebrew numbering; 4:5–6 in most English translations): > “Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the great and dreadful day of the LORD comes. He will turn the hearts of fathers to their children, and the hearts of children to their fathers, lest I come and strike the land with a curse.” In Jewish tradition, this verse gave rise to the belief that Elijah would return as a forerunner of the Messiah. This is reflected in classical sources such as *Mishnah Eduyot* 8:7 (“Elijah will come to make peace in the world”) and *Pirkei de-Rabbi Eliezer* 43, which depicts Elijah announcing the coming redemption. The New Testament also seems to contain this expectation. Jesus identifies John the Baptist as one who “is Elijah who was to come” (Matthew 11:14; cf. 17:10–13), though John himself denies being Elijah (John 1:21). Christian traditions have variously interpreted this tension. ### Question How do Protestant theological traditions understand the prophecy of Elijah’s return in Malachi 4:5–6? Specifically: - Do mainstream Protestant interpretations hold that the prophecy was fulfilled in John the Baptist (a typological or spiritual fulfillment)? - Do some view it as partially fulfilled, expecting a future literal return of Elijah before the Second Coming of Christ? - Is it regarded as entirely future, awaiting a physical reappearance of Elijah in eschatological events (e.g., linked to the “two witnesses” of Revelation 11)? - Or something else?

The verse reads (KJV): > “And he shall stand and feed in the strength of the LORD, in the majesty of the name of the LORD his God; and they shall abide: for now shall he be great unto the ends of the earth.” I understand this verse is tied to the prophecy of the Messiah being born in Bethlehem. However, the wording “**his** God” raises questions for me in the context of the Trinity. I am following Chuck Smith's Blue Letter Bible (verse by verse commentary) but he doesn’t address this phrasing. Matthew Henry's touches on it, suggesting that the Messiah “speaks with God’s authority,” referencing Matthew 7:28 (“because he was teaching them as one who had authority”). This seems related to other biblical patterns where God’s people or godly figures are “called by God’s name,” such as Daniel 1:19, Jeremiah 15:16, Jeremiah 14:9, Isaiah 43:6, and Acts 15:17. Another example is Exodus 23:21, where the angel (or Jesus, if seen as a Christophany) “carries God’s name.” I also understand that Jesus can address God as “My God” (Matthew 27:46), but in Micah, the author doesn’t seem concerned about drawing a strong distinction between the Messianic figure and God. I would greatly appreciate insight into this phrasing in Micah 5:4 — why does it say “His God”? What theological or textual reasons might explain it? Thank you in advance.

Does anyone have any good resources on Astronomical dating of Biblical prophecy? I have been looking into how Daniel and John used Astronomical "signs" to date their prophecies and have made several interesting connections. But I need more information on how these prophets use the descriptions of their visions to relate with astronomical positions of the stars and planets.

In common parlance, prophecy is often considered to be "predicting the future." For some, it conjures up images of telephone psychics and the like. Others might envision a crystal ball. It generally has a mystical connotation of some type. On the other hand, the "prophets" of Scripture (e.g. Malachi, Habakkuk, Jonah) seem to be doing something different. Making explicit predictions about the future seems to be a small part of their function as a "prophet." So my question is: **Biblically speaking, what exactly is prophecy?** Is there a Biblical definition that matches the actual practices of the prophets? ------ *If possible, please support your answers using the 66 books of Scripture that are found in the Protestant Bible.*

Revelation 13:18 (KJV) — *“Here is wisdom. Let him that hath understanding count the number of the beast: for it is the number of a man; and his number is Six hundred threescore and six.”* Some Christians point to persistent physical and time-related patterns in creation and human measurement systems that seem to feature “666,” such as: - **Earth’s axial tilt: 90 ∘ − 23.4 ∘ ≈ 66.6 ∘ 90 ∘ −23.4 ∘ ≈66.6 ∘** - **Earth’s orbital speed: ≈ 66,600 mph (depending on units and rounding)** - **Calendar division: 6 × 60 × 60 seconds in a day’s time measurement pattern** - **Barcodes: The guard bars in UPC codes resemble the digit “6” in the barcode system, producing a “666” pattern** Since Revelation calls believers to “count” the number, could such existing patterns be indicators that we are already living in the “beast system”? Or should these be understood as coincidences or unrelated to the prophecy?

**1 Chronicles 25:1-5 makes a point of identifying Asaph, Heman, and Jeduthun as prophets/seers.** This suggests that some of the psalms in Psalms are prophetic, anticipating future events. Several of these psalms are recognized as messianic, but largely because the NT treats them as such. But what about non-messianic psalms? **Has anyone developed a candidate list of (non-messianic) psalms which should be approached as prophetic, anticipating--at the time they were published--events which were yet future?** **Perhaps Psalm 137 is one of these?** It is commonly claimed that this psalm is exilic or even post-exilic, due to the initial reference to Babylon, remembrance of Zion, remembrance of the treatment of their captors, etc.1 Yet 137:5 is concerned that one might forget Jerusalem, which seems to exclude a post-exilic situation, unless the concern is that they might forget Jerusalem's former glory; but that goes beyond what is said. Further, 137:8 indicates that Babylon had not yet been destroyed. In some ways this psalm offers parallels to Isaiah 40-66 (esp. Isa 47) which, on the premise that there was a singular writer of Isaiah, prophetically speaks from a perspective of those already in exile. 1 Examples are Kidner and Belcher: "This psalm needs no title to announce that its provenance was the Babylonian exile." Derek Kidner, *Psalms 73–150: An Introduction and Commentary*, Tyndale Old Testament Commentaries (Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity Press, 1975), 495. "Psalm 137 arises out of the experience of the community in exile in Babylon following the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple in 587 BC. Although the author may be looking back on that experience the memory is fresh and the historical situation is still unsettled." Richard P. Belcher Jr., The Messiah and the Psalms: Preaching Christ from All the Psalms (Ross-shire, Scotland: Mentor, 2006), 76.

***Zionism*** (political nationalism) certainly was not begun by Dispensationalists; and the occurrence of the Halocaust did give impetus to it. But Dispensationalist have strongly embraced it. And Zionist Dispensationalists often quote the Genesis 12 verse, ***God will bless those who bless Israel, and curse those who curse Israel*** to justify their support, spiritually, financially, and militarily, for the nation of modern Israel. >I will bless those who bless you, and whoever curses you I will curse, and all peoples on earth will be blessed through you. (Genesis 12:3) This is even though the majority of the Jews in Israel are either ***secular, or anti-Christian***. And are seen to persecute Christians living there. (Statements by King of Jordon, and news reports on TBN network who reluctantly received his report until they saw videos themselves of Jews disrupting Christian rites). And ***Christian Palestinians*** are not even on their radar screen! So how do ***protestant orthodox Christian scholars*** deal with this seminal verse about blessing Israel in contrast to the Dispensational interpretation? Which other scriptures do non-Disp. Christians appeal to, that causes them to treat ***all nation equally***, with love and mercy, without referring to any particular nation or political entity?

Regarding the passage Mt 2:13-18. Joseph flees to Egypt with Jesus and Mary after being warned by an angel that Jesus’ life is in danger. Herod then kills all the male children less than 2 years old in and around Bethlehem (8 miles *south* of Jerusalem). Matthew calls this tragic event the fulfillment of Je 31:15: > A cry is heard in Ramah… Rachel weeps for her children… for her children are gone. However, OT verses and sources from bibleatlas.org point to Ramah being 8+ miles *north* of Jerusalem. How can the verses in Matthew and Jeremiah refer to the same place if they are 16+ miles apart? What am I missing?

There are a handful of prophecies that Christians consider as having "dual fulfillments" - one at the time, and one in the future. Matthew 24, Isaiah 7:14, etc. are examples. Where did this method of interpretation originate, and more importantly upon what foundation / first-principles does it rest? One could say, let's give it three interpretations, or let's say it was a failed prophecy, or let's say the original prophecy was fulfilled - but in a different way, etc. but instead Christians choose to utilize this Dual Fulfillment method on many prophecies. The explanation I've come across typically goes something like: "the first prophecy did not fully come about, so we'll see it fully happen sometime in the future." But, that's an obvious False Dilemma , as there are many other ways to explain the first prophecy not being "fully fulfilled". Would appreciate someone with more expertise chiming in.

In reading biblical prophecies about the end times—particularly in books like Daniel, Matthew 24, and Revelation—it's clear that major events such as the final judgment, the defeat of Satan, and the creation of a new heaven and new earth are prophesied. But does the Bible actually predict the end of time itself, or is it more accurate to say it describes the end of evil and the restoration of righteousness? Do any Christian traditions interpret these eschatological passages as pointing to a timeless eternity after judgment, or is time understood to continue in a renewed creation? Relevant passages might include Revelation 21–22, 1 Corinthians 15:24–28, and others.

Deuteronomy 18:21–22 says that if a prophet’s words do not come to pass, then the Lord has not spoken through them. This seems to suggest that fulfilled prophecy is a sign of true prophecy. Some Christians also believe that Satan does not know the future in the way God does (i.e., perfectly and completely), so any accurate future prediction would necessarily come from God. However, in Matthew 24:24, Jesus warns of false prophets performing great signs and wonders that could deceive even the elect if that were possible. Does this imply that even seemingly accurate future predictions could come from deceptive sources? So my question is: Can fulfilled predictions about the future be used as a reliable test to determine whether a prophet is truly from God, considering the claim that Satan does not know the future? Or are there additional biblical criteria that must be used to discern a true prophet?

Numbers 24:17 says: >*“I see him, but not now; I behold him, but not near. A star shall come out of Jacob, and a scepter shall rise out of Israel; he shall crush the skulls of Moab and break down all the sons of Sheth.”* This verse is commonly understood by some Christian traditions to be a Messianic prophecy pointing to Jesus Christ—with the “star” and “scepter” symbolizing His **divine authority** and **kingship**. However, the latter part of the verse includes a violent image: >*“he shall crush the skulls of Moab.”* According to those who believe Jesus is the fulfillment of this prophecy, how did he fulfill this part of the verse? This is because this verse was fulfilled in David who led his armies against the Moabites and conquered them, so how do they reconcile that?