In Matthew 24:2, Mark 13:2 and Luke 21:6, Jesus seems to indicate that in the coming temple destruction, "not one stone will be left upon another". And, indeed, this seems to be the case from the current ruins. However, I have come across several commentaries that state that because the temple was burned, the gold that was on the walls, melted and ran between the stones, as well as into them. The Roman solders then took stone from stone in a effort to retrieve the gold, thus giving literal fulfillment of Jesus' prophecy. Having encountered this explanation several times in the course of my studies, I wanted to find the source for this story, but, as of this date, am unable to do so. I don't find anything in Josephus relating to that gold-seeking activity. Does anyone know of a source document or documents that can authenticate this story?

For instance, in the *Tim LaHaye Prophecy Bible,* in his notes for Rev. 7:1-8: "... we are given an insight into the divine protection of the earth from powerful winds by the assignment of powerful angels and the sealing and **ministry of the 144,000 witnesses.** ... We can only imagine what **evangelistic success these 144,000 servants of God** will have." Where do people get the idea of ministry for the 144,000? Is it stated somewhere in the OT? I don't see any evangelistic work during Revelation's last days by men, only by an angel in Rev. 14:6.

I've been reading through the book of Ezekiel lately, and am confused by 26:14. The verse states that Tyre would never be rebuilt, but there is in fact a city called Tyre in roughly the same spot in modern-day Lebanon--it's the biggest city in that country, in fact. Skeptics across cyberspace love to pull up issues with 26 and 29, but I find most of them to be pretty trivial--*except this one*, which is giving me fits. GotQuestions says that Tyre being less impressive now (which it is, to be fair) means it was never "truly" rebuilt, but I don't think that's a very convincing argument. I also heard somebody say that large swatches of Tyre were archeological digs and thus not being rebuilt--this does not seem to be the case, judging by satellite photos. It also can't be the case that one of the two Tyres (Island vs Coastal) was restored but not the "real" Tyre, because modern Tyre covers both sites and most of the causeway that Alexander built betwixt them. **I'd like to ask how you all reconcile this passage, especially if you have any novel takes on it**. The main counterpoints I can think of are: 1) A rebuild in the sense described would almost certainly require being built on the same land, and *maybe* with some of the same assets--I couldn't just create Tyre, Nebraska and call it a rebuild. Given Alexander's causeway having mucked up the terrain so badly (and torn down all surrounding ruins to build it), a "rebuild" may be definitionally impossible. I'm not sure about this one, because it's not like there was just a Tyre-shaped hole in the earth--there *was* still ground, and Tyre *had* been on top of it, so would that be the same ground? 2) I am unsure *where* modern Tyre started, but it is possible I suppose that it could have started off-site and urban sprawl reclaimed the old location--thus, you may not call it a "rebuild" of old Tyre, but an expansion of new Tyre. Again, this is a definitions game that I'm not confident in. 3) Technically, it could simply be unfulfilled--somebody else could throw Tyre into the ocean again. This may stretch plausibility though. Please help me out here. Everything else in the chapter seems to line up dandy, and it's frankly embarrassing that I can't reconcile a town smaller than my state capital. EDIT: Something I remembered from a conversation with a mutual was that in Bible times a city would likely not be considered proper without defensive walls & such. Tyre has not had those since Alexander, and thus may not, within the Biblical sense, be considered a complete rebuilt city. EDIT AGAIN: Re-reading the passage, it occurs to me that the prophecy may be discussing Tyre *as a country*. I believe I am to understand that Tyre was independent of national rule and was thus effectively it's own country (the world was a lot smaller back then), until Nebuchadnezzar made the city a vassal state. I don't know if this is a valid tack, as the word city is mentioned later in the chapter--but I think back then, a fortified city and a country were somewhat synonymous (thought not of course entirely interchangeable. Jerusalem was not Israel). Can somebody who knows more about the history/culture of the Near-East chime in on the merits of this point?

---------- God sent Jonah to prophesy to the Babylonian city of Nineveh, which he did with the greatest of reluctance, thereby effecting the largest mass conversion of a city up to that time. It's possible that Nineveh was a "random" city, but that's probably not the case, given its size and strategic importance. Instead, what made Nineveh significant enough to be chosen in God's eyes? Was Nineveh the "second" city of Babylon, after the capital, in the manner of New York City versus Washington D.C.? Did Nineveh have a "Sodom and Gomorrah" reputation, making it the worst city of Babylon? Was Nineveh unusually open and "cosmopolitan," thereby making it the easiest city to convert? Or was there some other reason that I have overlooked? **Edit:** I now know that Nineveh was the former capital of Assyria, which was a very cruel, sinful city as depicted in sources such as this one. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=eIomxIWFBsY It was conquered by Babylon, a slightly "milder" country, and was Babylon's "second" city. All this made it a plausible target for God's wrath. Facts such as those in the link make it possible to answer individual points based in the question objectively.

### Introduction Joseph Smith is the founder of Mormonism and considered to be an a prophet of God by the LDS Church. Latter Day Saints believe that the Christian bible (Old and New Testaments) predicts the coming of Joseph Smith , that he brought forth the Book of Mormon, restored a lost priesthood, and established the true church. On the other hand, non-LDS Christians call Smith a false prophet and accuse him of theological fraud. ### Question What reasons do non-LDS Christians give for calling Joseph Smith a "false prophet"? What criteria do they use to determine Joseph Smith is not a true Christian prophet?

In Christian theology, Jesus is said to establish the New Covenant and fulfill the Old Covenant rather than abolish it. My difficulty concerns a specific Temple-related messianic expectation. For example, Zechariah 6:12–13 says of "the Branch": “Thus says the LORD of hosts, ‘Behold, the man whose name is the Branch: for he shall branch out from his place, and he shall build the temple of the LORD. It is he who shall build the temple of the LORD and shall bear royal honor, and shall sit and rule on his throne.’” (ESV) From a Jewish perspective, this seems to envision a visible, physical Temple-building as part of messianic expectation. If a visible restoration of the Temple had accompanied Jesus’ mission, it seems to me that the Christian claim would have been easier for Jews to accept without appearing to abandon covenantal faithfulness. I understand that many Christian interpretations address this by pointing to spiritual fulfillment: Jesus’ body as the Temple (John 2:19–21) Believers as God’s Temple (1 Corinthians 3:16) The Church as a dwelling place for God (Ephesians 2:19–22) My difficulty is this: God could, in principle, have fulfilled the prophecy in a fully observable way — restoring the Temple for the Jewish people — while simultaneously revealing the spiritual significance Christians now see. Such a course of action would have preserved both the prophecy’s visibility and persuasiveness from a Jewish perspective, while still conveying the theological truth Christians attribute to the Temple. Instead, the fulfillment remains largely non-obvious to those expecting a physical Temple, leaving a strong basis for Jewish non-acceptance. Question: How do mainstream Christian traditions explain why God allowed Temple-related expectations such as Zechariah 6:12–13 to be fulfilled in a spiritualized, postponed, or otherwise non-obvious way, rather than in a visibly persuasive way that could have satisfied both Jewish physical expectations and Christian spiritual interpretation?

Heard one preacher teaching on 1 Samuel 16 that when the prophet came to annoint another king in the house of Jesse he actually tried to pour oil on David's brothers but it would not come out until he came to David KJV 1 Samuel 16 : 1 >And the LORD said unto Samuel, How long wilt thou mourn for Saul, seeing I have rejected him from reigning over Israel? fill thine horn with oil, and go, I will send thee to Jesse the Beth-lehemite: for I have provided me a king among his sons Again, Jesse made seven of his sons to pass before Samuel. And Samuel said unto Jesse, The LORD hath not chosen these. Tried to search for this information in 1 Samuel 16 but couldn't find it. Got me thinking whether this was from some extra biblical source. Could be someone has an idea on this source?

> Ezekiel 21:18-23 > > New American Standard Bible 1995 > > The Instrument of God’s Judgment > > 18 The word of the Lord came to me saying, 19 “As for you, son of man, > make two ways for the sword of the king of Babylon to come; both of > them will go out of one land. And make a signpost; make it at the head > of the way to the city. 20 You shall mark a way for the sword to come > to Rabbah of the sons of Ammon, and to Judah into fortified Jerusalem. > 21 For the king of Babylon stands at the parting of the way, at the > head of the two ways, to use divination; he shakes the arrows, he > consults the household idols, he looks at the liver. 22 Into his right > hand came the divination, ‘Jerusalem,’ to set battering rams, to open > the mouth for slaughter, to lift up the voice with a battle cry, to > set battering rams against the gates, to cast up ramps, to build a > siege wall. 23 And it will be to them like a false divination in their > eyes; they have sworn solemn oaths. But he brings iniquity to > remembrance, that they may be seized. The Ezekiel 21:18-21 bible passage is interesting , and a bit strange. The reason being is that in Ezekiel 21:18 states God’s command to the Prophet Ezekiel to somehow prophecy and proclaim that the Babylonian king will attack the cities of Rabbah, Ammon and Jerusalem, Judah(Southern Israelite Kingdom). It’s sort of interesting that the immediate subsequent Ezekiel 21:21-22 indicate that the Babylonian king will “use divination”, “consults the household idols”, etc., which are all pagan practices & rituals of divination. However, Ezekiel 21:21-22’s bible passage seems to suggest that the Israelite God’s Will sometimes is manifestly prophetically expressed via divination pagan rituals & practices. Please understand that my question posting is in **No** way an indication of support and/or acceptance of practices & rituals of Nonbelievers, NonChristians &/or pagans. However, the Ezekiel 21:18-23 bible passage is interesting for Christians in today’s world because it gives Christians an idea as to how the Israelite God may at times guide/communicate with Nonbelievers, NonChristians &/or pagans who naively &/or unwittingly just do Not know &/or do Not understand Him. What can the bible reader infer from Ezekiel 21:18-23? Within the context of Nonbelievers, NonChristians &/or pagans who naively &/or unwittingly just do Not know &/or do Not understand the Israelite God, could it be that Israelite God does occasionally allow for His Will & Prophecies to be manifestly prophetically expressed via divination pagan rituals & practices?

According to fundamental Belief 24: (Christ’s ministry in the Heavenly Sanctuary) the SDA believe that Christ began his investigative judgement in 1844.This they refer to as the end of 2300 days of Daniel's prophecy. Daniel 8:14 NASB >14 And he said to me, “For 2,300 evenings and mornings; then the sanctuary will be [q]properly restored.” In the prophecy Daniel refers to the restoration of the sanctuary which the SDA clear identify as the heavenly sanctuary.But its not clear in Daniel's prophecy which one he was referring to.Should the text be understood from a literal or non literal sense. How can one understand this interpretation of Christ ministry in the heavenly sanctuary?

I recently watched the debate between the Apostate Prophet and Jake Brancatella from DebateCon earlier this year. Jake was a touch aggressive and AP was flakey, but a good discussion regardless. Jake pointed out something interesting in his argument that I think demands attention: In Genesis 37, Joseph's second dream depicts the sun, moon, and eleven stars all bowing to him. Israel then interprets this as Joseph being lauded by his mother, father, and brothers. However, Rachel was already dead and thus was unable to bow to her son in Egypt. **What is the generally-accepted solution to this problem?** I can think of four answers, but I'm not confident about any of them: 1. Rachel and Israel already played favorites with Joseph, before the whole debacle. The window for this is pretty small, because Israel was flabbergasted by the idea when Joseph brought it up. 2. This is a post-mortem thing that will happen in the afterlife. This is unverifiable on our end and I think defies logic. 3. This is not about Rachel, but one of Israel's other wives (Leah was also probably dead, so not her. Still, two other potential candidates). This seems like a bit of a stretch, but it's possible. 4. Rachel (and all the other wives) were of one flesh with Israel through marriage, so his actions may turn over to them via association. I don't think there's precedent for such a reading. What thoughts do others have on this matter? I'll be the first to say that I may be missing a simple answer somewhere.

The question arises whether the millennium is a literal 1000 year period, or a symbolic one. Perhaps the answer could be better ascertained if we look at other prophesied time periods, ones that were already fulfilled, and see what that shows us. Off the top of my head I can think of the several below, all of them fulfilled literally; but I'm not sure how to research this and perhaps others might be able to contribute some other instances, whether literal or symbolic. Here are the instances already thought of: The dreams of Pharaoh's officials interpreted by Joseph as to occur in 3 days in Genesis 40; The 7 years of famine in Pharaoh's dreams in Genesis 41; Nebuchadnezzar’s dream about his insanity in Dan. 4; The 70 years of the Babylonian captivity as prophesied in Jeremiah 25:11-13 and 29:11; Jesus' prophesy regarding being in the tomb 3 days in Matt. 12:40, Mark 8:41, and John 2:19; The destruction of Jerusalem, occurring in the generation still living after Jesus' death and resurrection in Matthew 24:34. The question is directed to any serious student of the Bible. Note that the prophesy has to have been fulfilled already (partial fulfillment is fine), in order to evaluate whether it was literal, or symbolic. Please Note: I am not looking for a defense or rebuttal of pre-post or a-millenialism, nor for general instances of fulfilled prophesy, but for specified time periods of future events, that were fulfilled.

### Introduction The Law of Moses/Torah of Moses are a body of commandments and laws which were given to the nation of Israel at Mount Sinai by God. Observant Jews continue to follow these laws as understood through rabbinic traditions and interpretations, while most major Christian denominations more or less do not. The Old Testament/Hebrew Bible contains many scriptures which seem to indicate that the Mosaic law is eternal and uses the same word used elsewhere that describes God being eternal: **Exodus 31:16–17 (NRSV)** indicates observance of the Sabbath is an eternal activity: > Therefore the Israelites shall keep the Sabbath, observing the Sabbath throughout their generations, as a **perpetual covenant**. It is a sign **forever** between me and the Israelites that in six days the Lord made heaven and earth, and on the seventh day he rested and was refreshed. **Leviticus 16:29-34** indicates Yom Kippur should be observed forever: > This shall be a statute to you **forever**: In the seventh month, on the tenth day of the month, you shall humble yourselves ... This shall be an **everlasting statute** for you, to make atonement for the Israelites once in the year for all their sins. And Moses did as the Lord had commanded him. **Deuteronomy 29:29** seems to indicate that all the words of the law should be followed for all time by the children of Israel: > The secret things belong to the Lord our God, but the revealed things belong to us and to our children **forever**, to observe all the words of this law. **Jeremiah 31:31** makes a promise that the Jews will have the Mosaic law written on their heart in the future: > The days are surely coming, says the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah. It will not be like the covenant that I made with their ancestors when I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt—a covenant that they broke, though I was their husband, says the Lord. But this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: **I will put my law within them, and I will write it on their hearts**, and I will be their God, and they shall be my people. No longer shall they teach one another or say to each other, “Know the Lord,” for they shall all know me, from the least of them to the greatest, says the Lord, for I will forgive their iniquity and remember their sin no more. **Esther 9:28** says the celebration of Purim will never end: > These days should be remembered and kept throughout every generation, in every family, province, and city, and these days of Purim should never fall into disuse among the Jews, nor should the commemoration of these days cease among their descendants ### Question Do Christians believe that the Hebrew Bible prophesied that the commandments it called eternal would one day end? Is there an Old Testament basis for believing observance of the Mosaic law would not be forever? Views from all denominations welcome.

### Background Zechariah 12:10 is cited in the New Testament as an explicit prophecy for Jesus's crucifixion by the Gospel of John: > These things occurred so that the scripture might be fulfilled, “None of his bones shall be broken.” And again another passage of scripture says, “**They will look on the one whom they have pierced**.” *John 19:36-37 (NRSV)* Christians through the ages cite Zechariah 12:10 as one of the clearest prophecies of Jesus's death, down to the details of him being pierced. However a close reading of Zechariah 12, starting just a few verses earlier seems to indicate more to the prophecy than simply someone being pierced: > On that day **the Lord will shield the inhabitants of Jerusalem** so that the feeblest among them on that day shall be like David, and the house of David shall be like God, like the angel of the Lord, at their head. > > And **on that day I will seek to destroy all the nations that come against Jerusalem**. > > **And I will pour out a spirit of compassion and supplication on the house of David and the inhabitants of Jerusalem so that, when they look on the one[a] whom they have pierced**, they shall mourn for him as one mourns for an only child and weep bitterly over him as one weeps over a firstborn. *Zechariah 12:8-10 (NRSV)* Critically this passage appears to promise that Jerusalem will be divinely protected, and that the nations who come against Jerusalem will be destroyed by God. This is extremely curious since Jerusalem was famously destroyed a few years after Jesus's death. ### Question How do Christians who believe Zechariah 12:10 applies to Jesus interpret Zechariah 12:8 and 9? Do they believe Jerusalem was miraculously protected in 33 CE and her enemies destroyed? What parts of this passage actually came true in Jesus's time?

Some modern day charismatic teachers exercise a kind of prophecy that seems very similar to non-Christian psychic readings or secular cold reading techniques. One example is Shawn Bolz prophesying , compared to Deren Brown explaining psychic readings . What Biblical support do these Christians give for calling these techniques prophecy, and what Biblical support do they give for practicing them? ------- *Closely Related To:* 1. https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/34214/what-is-the-biblical-basis-for-modern-day-prophets 1. https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/50899/what-is-the-biblical-basis-for-schools-of-prophecy-where-people-learn-to-pro

In 1598 the Edict of Nantes was passed allowing Protestants to worship in Catholic France. But this Edict was revoked in 1685, and under the reign of King Louis XIV, there was extreme persecution of the Huguenots in southern France. Among the Huguenots were the charismatic Camisards known for their visions, prophecies, and speaking in tongues. There was a time of great fighting, with many Protestants fleeing the country of France...until emigration was outlawed, too. And much of the Camisard settlements were destroyed. Many were massacred by the French dragoons. Some were able to flee to England. Are there any existing charismatic Camisards that still meet in Protestant (Reformed) churches today, and practice the charismatic gifts? In France? In other nations? Or have they disappeared from the Church landscape?

Paul refers to a prophecy about Timothy > **1 Tim 1:18-19 ESV** Timothy, my son, I am giving you this command in keeping with the **prophecies once made about you**, so that by recalling them you may fight the battle well, holding on to faith and a good conscience, which some have rejected and so have suffered shipwreck with regard to the faith. Which prophecy is he talking about?

I was wondering which church denominations have a very strong emphasis in the prophecies of Daniel and Revelation since it seems they are linked to one another?

Some modern interpreters speculate that the “image of the beast” in Revelation 13:14–15 could refer to advanced technology such as humanoid robots or AI systems that appear to “speak” and exercise authority. Are there any established Christian denominations or theological traditions (historic or contemporary) that officially or commonly interpret the “image of the beast” as referring to robots, artificial intelligence, or other technological constructs? If so: - What is the scriptural basis they use for connecting Revelation 13 with AI or robotics? - How do they interpret the phrases “give breath to the image” and the image “speaking”? I’m looking for answers grounded in recognized denominational teachings, published statements, or works by theologians representing those traditions—not purely personal speculation.

I seem to recall reading in the Bible some years ago that there will come a time when *"sin will be out in the open."* However, I have since tried to find it to no avail. Does this prophecy occur in the Bible; or perhaps, did I find it someplace else? Does anyone know where this may have came from?

Most Christians and leaders seem to quote inspirational verses out of the prophetic books consistently. The issue is that they are taking lots of verses out of context. Recently, I've been wondering how we correctly read the 17 prophetic books. These books seem to only be written for 1. the people at the time 2. descriptions of the Messiah 3. descriptions of The New Heaven and New Earth Outside of this, I have also seen that these prophecies include 1. Double References (Isaiah 14 talking about Satan and a king) 2. Insight into God's Creation (Jeremiah 4) [the Book of Job also does this, but that would of course be poetry and not prophecy] 3. Showing the character and demonstrations of God But what exactly does someone do when they want to read through the Book of Ezekiel or any other book? I have oftentimes been led of the Holy Spirit to see new things in the Prophetic Books, but for the most part, if I have to be honest, it seems like the entire Body of Christ just steers away from these books because of the level of confusion that comes from reading them. Why are they in the Bible? What do they do for New Testament Believers? How does it bring us into the full stature of Christ (2 Timothy 3:16-17)? I understand that there is historical evidence for the prophecies and that we can see what makes God angry, but there has got to be more reasoning behind having 17 books written in this style than just those things. What should I be able to pick up from these books that is beyond what my eyes can see? I cannot find a single answer online, so please know that I did my research before posting here. Thank you.