In John 21:9-14, after His resurrection, Jesus prepares a meal of fish and bread for His disciples by the Sea of Galilee. This moment is both intimate and practical, showing Jesus serving His followers with a simple act of hospitality. Does this scene offer any theological or moral encouragement for Christians today to develop practical life skills like cooking and serving others, especially within the context of ministry, hospitality, or daily Christian living? How have different Christian traditions interpreted this act?

A disciple asked Jesus why he used parables and in response he told him. >He replied, "The knowledge of the mysteries of the kingdom of God has been given to you, but to others I speak in parables, so that, 'though seeing, they may not see; though hearing, they may not understand. Luke 8:10 Why reveal it to the disciples directly but reveal it in parables to others?

In studying through the gospels chronologically, I realized that at least two of the apostles, Andrew and most likely John, were already close disciples of John the Baptist before they met Christ. Andrew went to get his brother Peter, which implies he wasn't far away. It occurred to me that, at least for the inner core, these first disciples of Jesus did not start following Him out of a vacuum. They were spiritual men and were most probably seeking for the Messiah, as directed by John. It seems worthy of note. I could not find any biblical commentary on this , to get more information. For example, where was John baptizing? These were working men; yet they were hanging around John, away from home. Bathabera is traditionally considered to be near the north end of the Dead Sea and east of Jerusalem, and about 70 miles from Gallilee. This makes sense considering John the Baptist preached in the wilderness, and Christ was immediately led out there after His baptism. I would like to know, besides if there is any commentary on the first disciples before they met Christ, what is considered a reliable current source for ancient geography. Thank you.

[*Britannica* article on Calvinism](https://www.britannica.com/topic/Calvinism) states > Calvin had certain approximate and attainable tests. He did not > require the experience of the new birth, which is so inward and > intangible, though to be sure later Calvinism moved away from him on > this point and agonized over the signs of election. For Calvin there > were three tests: the profession of faith; a rigorously disciplined > Christian deportment; and a love of the sacraments, which meant the > Lord’s Supper, since infant baptism was not to be repeated. Persons > who could meet these three tests could assume their election and stop > worrying If Christ chose Judas to be a disciple, and if Christ is part of the Trinitarian Godhead being all-knowing and omnipotent... According to Calvinism, how is it that Christ elected Judas Iscariot to discipleship, one of Christ's inner circle, only to be betrayed by him? Calvinists would say Jesus predetermined Judas election to the discipleship because the Bible records he chose him. Because God chose Judas, is not a disciple predetermined to be saved? What happened in this example?

Why Moses? Why Elijah? Why not Enoch? I say this because Elijah was taken up into the heavens, same for Enoch, but it is mentioned in scripture that Moses clearly died What made the disciples think that it was, Moses and Elijah, that were with Jesus during his transfiguration if they had never seen Moses or Elijah before then? Is there more to it than an explanation such as divine revelation? I am recently reading the New testament vigilantly and this part really captivated me for some reason. I would appreciate a very detailed and holistic answer if possible.

We read in Mtt 26:14 : > Then one of the twelve, called Judas Iscariot, went unto the chief priests... On a number of occassions including the Last Supper, 'the twelve' are referred to as 'disciples'. Other than the twelve whom we know as Apostles, Jesus also had 72 disciples . After the Lord's ascension, the hierarchy would become prominent with the Apostles having exclusive meetings and decision making . But, how did the apostles and other disciples distinguish between themselves during the time of Jesus' public ministry ? For instance, were they addressed as Apostle Peter, Disciple Mark etc ? Are there any apocryphal writings available on the subject ?

John the Baptist was aware the Messiah was coming after him, and His identity was revealed (or rather, confirmed) to him in the Jordan though a [voice from Heaven](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew.3%3A13%E2%80%9317%3B+Mark.1%3A9%E2%80%9311%3B+Luke.3%3A21%E2%80%9323&version=NIV) . And yet, it seems John the Baptist did not became one of Jesus's many disciples, nor was he chosen by Jesus as one of the Twelve (whereas two of John's disciples did follow Jesus, [one being identified as Andrew](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=john%201:35-1:42&version=NIV)) . It seemed like they had different tasks altogether and could not mix. I am not aware of an instance where they are preaching together or sharing other moments. Why John the Baptist did not "follow" Jesus and became one of his disciples? He remained having disciples of himself, which you would imagine being a "less perfect way" than following Jesus. PD: If needed as per site rules, a Catholic perspective is preferred.

We see in Luke 24 how the angels at the empty tomb of Jesus post-Resurrection, put a point blank question to the confused women disciples: > Why are you searching for the living among the dead? Going to Acts 1, we see the angels posing another question to the disciples post-Ascension: > Galileans, Why are you looking up at the sky? ... (The salutation itself lacked warmth , because Galilee was not a place regarded with esteem by the Jews . See Acts 2:7) Juxtapose those remarks with the charitable approach that Jesus adopts while dealing with 'doubting Thomas'. One is inclined to conclude that the angels were a bit too harsh with the disciples post-Resurrection and post-Ascension. But, what has been the view taken on the subject by the scholars? Inputs from any denomination are welcome.

In Luke 10:1 (NAB), we have: >After this the Lord appointed seventy[-two]* others whom he sent ahead of him in pairs to every town and place he intended to visit. The gloss therein, indicated by the asterisk says: > Seventy[-two]: important representatives of the Alexandrian and Caesarean text types read “seventy,” while other important Alexandrian texts and Western readings have “seventy-two.” In the D-R (Luke 10:1), there are no brackets: > And after these things the Lord appointed also other seventy-two: and he sent them two and two before his face into every city and place whither he himself was to come. Can anyone explain the gloss a bit further, indicating how or why a difference in numbers appears between two versions of the Bibles? Undoubtedly, there is a *significance* to the exact number of disciples Our Lord sent out, but it will be difficult to infer if the exact number is not known.

*This Q is appealing to each and every of the 35,000+ individual denominations of Christianity, and even those non-denominational sects who perhaps glibly adhere to biblical principles.* Q. If every word of scripture is true, trustworthy, and inspired, (2Tim 3:16) why does Proverbs say this when this didn't work out for even God himself? Pro 22:6 ESV >Train up a child in the way he should go; even when he is old **he will not depart from it.** And yet... Isa 1:2-4 NLT >**2** Listen, O heavens! Pay attention, earth! This is what the LORD says: "**The children I raised and cared for have rebelled against me.** **3** Even an ox knows its owner, and a donkey recognizes its master's care--but Israel doesn't know its master. My people don't recognize my care for them." **4** Oh, what a sinful nation they are--loaded down with a burden of guilt. **They are evil people, corrupt children who have rejected the LORD.** They have despised the Holy One of Israel and turned their backs on him. This isn't even an isolated incident, it was a recurring theme throughout the Bible: Eze 20:17-18, 21 NLT >**17** Nevertheless, I took pity on them and held back from destroying them in the wilderness. **18** "Then I warned their children not to follow in their parents' footsteps, defiling themselves with their idols. > >**21** "**But their children, too, rebelled against me**. They refused to keep my decrees and follow my regulations, even though obedience would have given them life. And they also violated my Sabbath days. So again I threatened to pour out my fury on them in the wilderness.* Are godly parents really expected to experience this promise from Proverbs with their own children, when God couldn't even keep his own children on the straight and narrow? And if you are one of those who simply write it off as a "general" rule, not to be applied to all godly parents, yet, wouldn't it—at the very least—be applied to GOD himself as the ultimate Parent? I am looking for those with adept scriptural perception as to *how and why* a godly parent—one who pleases God— would not receive this promise of seeing their children endure to the end in faith. Thank you. *I was expecting more people to use actual scripture passages about rearing children correctly or parent/child relationships with logical interpretations to answer this. Instead, I seem to be getting criticism for taking Biblical promises too seriously.*

I recently heard someone who describes themself as an ardent Christian state that Christianity is "a fighting man's religion". They backed this up by claiming that when Jesus sent the disciples out he sent them armed. Is this - the arming of the disciples - a widely held belief and if so, on what basis is it argued? I certainly don't recall reading it that way.

Why did Jesus forbid his disciples to say goodbye to their families? Luk 9:59-62 NKJV >**59** Then He said to another, "Follow Me." But he said, "Lord, let me first go and bury my father." **60** Jesus said to him, "*Let the dead bury their own dead, but you go and preach the kingdom of God.*" **61** And another also said, "Lord, I will follow You, but let me first go [and] bid them farewell who are at my house." **62** But Jesus said to him, "*No one, having put his hand to the plow, and looking back, is fit for the kingdom of God."* Yet Elijah permitted Elisha to go back to his own family to say his farewells? 1Ki 19:19-20 NLT >**19** So Elijah went and found Elisha son of Shaphat plowing a field. There were twelve teams of oxen in the field, and Elisha was plowing with the twelfth team. Elijah went over to him and threw his cloak across his shoulders and then walked away. **20** Elisha left the oxen standing there, ran after Elijah, and said to him, "First let me go and kiss my father and mother good-bye, and then I will go with you!" Elijah replied, "**Go on back**, but think about what I have done to you."

I read in the Quran (5:112-114) > And when the disciples said, 'O Jesus son of Mary, is your Lord able to bring down for us a feast from heaven?' He said, 'Fear God, if you are believers.'“ They said, “We wish to eat from it, so that our hearts may be reassured, and know that you have told us the truth, and be among those who witness it.” Jesus son of Mary said, “O God, our Lord, send down for us a table from heaven, to be a festival for us, for the first of us, and the last of us, and a sign from You; and provide for us; You are the Best of providers.” I do not find this in the canonical Gospel accounts. Is a similar account related in Christian literature?

Modern scholarship tends to reject the attributed authorship of the gospels. But are there non-Christian scholars who believe in the attributed authorship?

According to Deuteronomy 18:16, the Israelites said “Let us not hear the voice of the LORD our God nor see this great fire anymore, or we will die.” God says in Deut. 18:17, “What they say is good.". Yet in Matthew 17:6, the disciples heard God's voice and lived. How was this so? >15 The LORD thy God will raise up unto thee a Prophet from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me; unto him ye shall hearken; 16 According to all that thou desiredst of the LORD thy God in Horeb in the day of the assembly, saying, Let me not hear again the voice of the LORD my God, neither let me see this great fire any more, that I die not. 17 And the LORD said unto me, They have well spoken that which they have spoken. 18 I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him. >[Deuteronomy 18: 15-18 KJV]

1. As, the question asks, can anyone aggregate for me and put a small list of who all witnessed the crucifixion of Jesus Christ, in the decreasing order of the person's importance (popularity). e.g. First the disciples and then other notable people who witnessed the event in that order. A list of roughly 25 or less number of people would suffice. 2. Also a related question, who exactly witnessed Jesus Christ saying these words at the time of his death, "Father forgive them?". (Please support the answer to this line with **authentic** references)

From [Luke 6:13–16](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=luke+6%3A13-16&version=NIV) (NIV): > When morning came, he called his disciples to him and chose twelve of > them, whom he also designated apostles: Simon (whom he named Peter), > his brother Andrew, James, **John**, Philip, Bartholomew, **Matthew**, > Thomas, James son of Alphaeus, Simon who was called the Zealot, Judas > son of James, and Judas Iscariot, who became a traitor. John and Matthew were included, but the remaining two authors of the Gospel – Mark and Luke – were not. Why is this, and how did they come to know Jesus so closely as to later write his Gospel?

The Roman Catholic Church venerates Mary as not only having been blessed to be the mother of Christ, but also as having been born without sin (Immaculate Conception), and to have been a perpetual virgin. Protestants do not believe the former, and most do not believe the latter either. What is the Biblical basis for presuming that Mary was one of Jesus' disciples, i.e. a Christian? --- Note - this is not meant to cast aspersions on any particular belief, and only looks for evidence of her conversion and belief in her son's work on the cross, not whether she was born without sin, or was a virgin after Jesus' birth.

Did Jesus command His Disciples to Worship Him? Any verse from the Bible proves that?

In regards to John 4:1-3, were Jesus' disciples in this passage baptizing with John's baptism? If not, and they were baptizing in the name of Jesus, did the people who receive this baptism have to be re-baptized to receive the Holy Spirit (as did those who received John's baptism)?