Genesis chapter 42 - 45 recount story of Joseph tricking his brothers who are in Egypt to buy grain, into going back and forth several times from Canaan to Egypt in an attempt exonerate themselves in the (feigned) accusation from Joseph of being a spy. Eventually Joesph reveals himself as their brother, and Jacob and his family move to Egypt as a result. Why did Joseph trick them in this way? I can think of only a few reasons: - He wanted to get all of his brothers and father back to Egypt before he revealed himself. - He distrusted his brothers, since they had tried to kill him, and sold him into slavery years prior to this event, he was trying to ascertain if his younger brother and father were in fact still alive. - He was punishing his brothers by making them suffer this way in an act of revenge. In any event the author of Genesis spends a lot of precipitous time and space recounting this deception, is there some cultural aspect to this that I am missing? Is there some context to the story that would reveal more about the characters involved or the nature of God or their relationship to him?

Rebecca, after overhearing Isaac telling Esau to go and catch a game, prepared a meal for Jacob so he could bless him. However, she advised Jacob to impersonate his brother to receive Esau's blessings instead. How does that not constitute the sin of lying through impersonation, which is deemed immoral and can lead to condemnation if a Christian unapologetically commits? (See story in Genesis 27.)

It is my understanding that after Joseph presented Jacob to Pharaoh, the king gave the Hebrews (Jacob and the rest of his party) some very fertile land (Goshen) in which to dwell by themselves. It seems that Egyptians held people who were shepherds in abomimation. QUESTION: Do we have a good idea of where exactly Goshen was located; or is the exact site pretty much conjecture?

**Jacob and his house of 70** Jacob in Egypt, Wikipedia According to Wikipedia, Jacob brought 70 people to an Egyptian pharaoh. > Israel and his entire house of 70, gathered up with all their livestock and began their journey to Egypt. > The time had come for Joseph's family to personally meet the Pharaoh of Egypt. - **Userkaf** Userkaf, Wikipedia Now, based upon this little information regards to the 70 people, I made some efforts myself to find out who this pharaoh might be, and I came across a pharaoh named Userkaf who it is claimed had a chieftain lead 70 women to him, most likely from Canaan. > Userkaf, trade & military activities, Wikipedia > > South of Egypt, Userkaf launched a military expedition into Nubia, while the Old Kingdom annals record that he received tribute from a region that is either the Eastern Desert or Canaan in the form of a workforce of one chieftain and 70 foreigners (likely women), as well as 303 "pacified rebels" destined to work on Userkaf's pyramid. So based upon this, is the reason I am asking. If the pharaoh was not Userkaf, Does anyone know which Egyptian pharaoh it was, or would have been?

Genesis 32:27-28 >**27** So He said to him, “What is your name?” He said, “Jacob.” **28** And He said, “Your name shall no longer be called Jacob, but Israel; for you have struggled with God and with men, and have prevailed.” Romans 9:20 >But indeed, O man, who are you to reply against God? God gives Jacob a new name, Israel. Israel becomes not just the name of the patriarch but of the nation of God's chosen people. The meaning of the name Israel can be translated as struggles with God. The “struggles with God” meaning of Israel can be contrasted with the meaning of Islam, “submission to the will of God.” A general question – **what is the significance of the name Israel? Does God allow us to struggle or merely submit?** More specifically, **how is God's encounter with Jacob in Genesis 32 addressed within the framework of monergism vs. synergism?** Even more specifically, **how do Genesis 32:28 and Romans 9:20 square with each other?** Is Paul's question only rhetorical, who are you to question God? Is not the answer within the name of Israel itself? God chose this people knowing full well they are stiff-necked. To present a crude analogy-- are we God's children or God's pets? For children, part of earning responsibility is the sum of our choices. Even with a dog, it might be docile or spirited. God appears to appreciate believers with a bit of spirit. Maybe it is by wrestling with God that our ultimate love, fear, and worship of God are most sincere.

Jacob had twelve sons, the firstborn of whom was Reuben. Yet, the birthright that should have passed on to Reuben did not due to Reuben's sin against his father (1 Chronicles 5:1-2). Naturally, one would assume that the next in line would be Simeon, the second-oldest. It did not pass to Simeon either. In fact, Jacob passes over all of his sons until he gets to Joseph. Now, he essentially passes on the birthright and blessing to Ephraim, the younger of Joseph's sons. I have a few questions regarding this. First, why does Jacob pass the birthright to Joseph's sons, and not Joseph himself? In fact, before doing so, why does Jacob essentially say that Joseph's sons are now considered to be his sons? What is the meaning of this? Second, what is the significance of choosing Ephraim, the younger, over Manasseh, the older? Finally, even though Ephraim has the birthright, the lineage of Jesus comes through Judah. Why then, does the birthright not pass to Judah? Why is there a disconnect between this birthright and the importance of Judah in Jesus' lineage?

I read long ago in the Open Bible as a note, that birth rights were actually a physical carved token that Jacob tricked Esau out of, I guess a registered icon with the powers that be. Is this true? It's never mentioned anyone else. It seems to make sense to me, as Esau could've lied to this father, even though he swore to Jacob. He couldn't do this if the supposed birthright token was transferred to Jacob. Perhaps the bible version I read was incorrect... would be interesting to find out for sure.

Genesis 25:29-34 tells the story about Esau selling his birthright because he is hungry and despised it. > And Jacob sod pottage: and Esau came from the field, and he was faint: And Esau said to Jacob, Feed me, I pray thee, with that same red pottage; for I am faint: therefore was his name called Edom. And Jacob said, Sell me this day thy birthright. And Esau said, Behold, I am at the point to die: and what profit shall this birthright do to me? And Jacob said, Swear to me this day; and he sware unto him: and he sold his birthright unto Jacob. Then Jacob gave Esau bread and pottage of lentiles; and he did eat and drink, and rose up, and went his way: thus Esau despised his birthright. Why did he (Esau) despise his birthright? Is there a good Christian commentary that explains what "despised" means, and why Esau would have despised it?

What, specifically, did Esau lose when he lost the birthright, and what did Jacob gain? What did the birthright represent, and why was it so highly prized by Jacob?

There are several examples in the Bible where faithful people were given a new name: - Abram became Abraham (Genesis 17:5 ) - Sarai became Sarah (Genesis 17:15 ) - Jacob became Israel (Genesis 32:28 ; 35:10 ) - Simon became Peter (Matthew 16:18 ; John 1:42 ) Usually, we refer to Abraham as Abraham, Sarah as Sarah, and Peter as Peter – using their new names. Given that pattern, why is it more common to refer to Jacob as Jacob, rather than his new name, Israel? Interestingly, it seems that Jacob was given his new name twice, as if he forgot it the first time (Genesis 32 and 35). Among the mentions of Jacob/Israel in the Bible, there are 17 occurrences of the phrase “Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob,” but only four occurrences of “Abraham, Isaac, and Israel.” Sometimes God himself uses the name Jacob, after having said “you will no longer be called Jacob” (Genesis 35:10). As evidence of modern usage, the Wikipedia article for Abram/Abraham is Abraham , but the Wikipedia article for Jacob/Israel is Jacob . Also, Abraham and Jacob are the names of the relevant tags here on Christianity Stack Exchange.

At the time of Noah, God said: > **Genesis 6:3 NIV** > Then the LORD said, “My Spirit will not contend with humans > forever, for they are mortal; their days will be a hundred and > twenty years.” Now, later on, we have the account of Jacob and his sons. When Jacob moves to Joseph in Egypt, the pharaoh of asks him of his age, to which he replies: > **Genesis 47:9 NIV** > And Jacob said to Pharaoh, “The years of my pilgrimage are a hundred > and thirty. My years have been few and difficult, and they do not > equal the years of the pilgrimage of my fathers.” Is there any explanation for this? I guess that either you can interpret this as Jacob referring to something else then his true physical age (e.g. "the years of my pilgrimage" having some kind of special meaning), or he might have miscalculated, or God's rule of the maximum age of man might not apply to all, like Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Moses and other distinguished men of God.

For various reasons, I've always wondered how long Jacob and Rachel were married before her death. Rachel's death (shortly after giving birth to Benjamin) is record in Genesis 35:16-18. As a result I've always tried to guesstimate the length of their marriage from the age difference between Benjamin and his older brothers, but unless some details are hiding in the original Hebrew that are lost in translation, it doesn't seem to me that there are enough details in Genesis to have any real idea. Is there anything I'm missing? Are there any details that make it possible to estimate (with any accuracy) how long Jacob and Rachel were married before her death?

Is this a contradiction? Or am I missing something. It seems strange to think one can "wrestle" with God. [Genesis 32:30 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis%2032:30&version=NIV) : >30 So Jacob called the place Peniel, saying, “It is because I saw God face to face, and yet my life was spared.” [Exodus 33:18-20 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus%2033:18-20&version=NIV) : >18 Then Moses said, “Now show me your glory.” 19 And the LORD said, “I will cause all my goodness to pass in front of you, and I will proclaim my name, the LORD, in your presence. I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I will have compassion. 20 But,” he said, “you cannot see my face, for no one may see me and live.”

Mark 12:26-27 (also see Matthew 22:32, Luke 20:38) is > "But concerning the dead rising, have you not read about the burning > bush in the Book of Moses, how God told him, ‘I am the God of Abraham, > the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’? 27 **He is not the God of the > dead, but of the living.** You are badly mistaken!" How do soul sleep adherents explain this passage? Is the idea that people who are 'sleeping' are still 'alive' in the relevant sense, albeit not conscious? Or by being a God of the living, is Jesus referring to a future state of full aliveness for Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob? Or something else?

This is because in Matt. 1:2 the bible said; And Isaac begat Jacob. Then same Matt. 1 verse 15 said; and Matthan begat Jacob. Now, both Jacobs begotten by different parents also begat Josephs. Does this implies there were two (2) Jacobs in the Bible. Thanks Brethren for anticipated response.

***What is the biblical basis for thinking God established the principle of birthright and inheritance and that He has sovereign control over who He elects*** Was God himself the author of this teaching or not? Although birthright privileges for the firstborn son are mentioned in the Bible at the time of Isaac’s death (circa 1886 B.C.), it was not established in Mosaic Law for another 440 years. Even secular sources acknowledge that the custom of passing on rights and privileges to the eldest son “was sufficiently common in the Middle East for the passage [about Esau and Jacob] to seem plausible to the people living there prior to the Roman Empire.” See Wikipedia’s article on [Primogeniture](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Primogeniture#Biblical) . The first mention of birthright and inheritance in the Bible is in Genesis chapter 25. Abraham’s son Isaac became father to twin boys (Esau and Jacob). The firstborn son had the right to inherit a double portion because “he is the beginning of his [father’s] strength; the right of the firstborn is his” (Deuteronomy 21:17). The birthright (*bekorah*) has to do with both position and inheritance. By birthright, the firstborn son inherited the leadership of the family and the judicial authority of his father. The father would pronounce a blessing which was considered to be the formal act of acknowledging the firstborn as the principal heir. Yet, even before the twins were born, the Lord predicted that the older (Esau) would serve the younger (Jacob) (Genesis 25:23). There are several instances where God’s sovereign will decreed that the firstborn son would not always be the son to inherit. God cursed Cain, the first son born to Adam and Eve, and blessed Seth, the third son. Through Seth came Noah, then Shem (who was not the oldest son) and on to Abraham and Isaac (who was not the oldest son), then to Jacob. God changed Jacob’s name to Israel (Genesis 32:28), and he became the father of the 12 tribes of Israel. Then, in Exodus 4:23 God calls Israel “my firstborn son”. This goes beyond any human notion of the rights and privileges of the firstborn son but speaks of God’s divine will. God also declared Jesus to be his Son (Matthew 3:17), who is described as “the firstborn of the dead, and the ruler of kings on earth” (Revelation 1:5). There is a spiritual application to this issue of firstborn and inheritance. What is the biblical basis for thinking God established the principle of birthright and inheritance and that He has sovereign control over who He elects

There is a song by Damian Marley that refers to "The sleeping sons of Jacob". I looked up 'Sons of Jacob' on Wikipedia and now understand them to represent the 12 tribes of Israel, but I have only heard "sleeping" sons of Jacob in the Damian Marley song. I am curious to know what the significance of "Sleeping" may be, if anything. Is this a reference to some religious concept?

Some translations say [Israel], while majority of the others say [you]. [New International Version] *Like a lion they crouch and lie down, like a lioness--who dares to rouse them? "May those who bless **you** be blessed and those who curse you be cursed!"* [New Living Translation] *Like a lion, Israel crouches and lies down; like a lioness, who dares to arouse her? Blessed is everyone who blesses **you, O Israel** , and cursed is everyone who curses you.”* Other translations https://biblehub.com/numbers/24-9.htm __________________ A previous verse (24:5) speaks of Jacob in most translations, but atleast two translations omit Jacob, [New International Version] *"How beautiful are your tents, **Jacob** , your dwelling places, Israel!* [New Living Translation] *How beautiful are your tents, **O Jacob** ; how lovely are your homes, O Israel!* [Contemporary English Version] [**no Jacob**] *"People of Israel, your camp is lovely.* [Good News Translation] [**no Jacob**] *The tents of Israel are beautiful* Other translations https://biblehub.com/numbers/24-5.htm __________________ [Genesis 27:29] shows a similar verse to [Numbers 24:9], but the former is of Isaac speaking of Jacob, [New International Version] *May nations serve you and peoples bow down to you. Be lord over your brothers, and may the sons of your mother bow down to you. **May those who curse you be cursed and those who bless you be blessed** ."* Other translations seem identical, https://biblehub.com/genesis/27-29.htm __________________ Who is being referred to in Numbers 24:9, and what is the reason for the differences (if any)?

I was just reading about [Jacob's Dream at Bethel](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Genesis+28%3A10-22&version=NIV) and I had a question: *Why would angels be ascending and descending a stairway (or a ladder, in other versions of the Christian Bible) from Earth to Heaven if they possess of wings?* ># Jacob's Dream at Bethel > >*10Jacob left Beersheba and set out for Harran. 11When he reached a certain place, he stopped for the night because the sun had set. Taking one of the stones there, he put it under his head and lay down to sleep. 13He had a dream in which he saw a stairway resting on the earth, with its top reaching to heaven, and the angels of God were ascending and descending on it.* > >Genesis 28:10-13 | New International Version (NIV) There seems to be no denying that in the Christian Bible, [angels have wings](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/4986/where-did-angels-get-their-wings) .

I understand the significance of God's renaming. But I wonder if anyone has done any research as to why the writers of scripture (and consequently, Jews and Christians today) refer to AbraHAM (changed name), Isaac (never offered a new name) and then JACOB (the name BEFORE God changed it to Israel)? You never hear "Abram, Isaac, and Jacob" and you rarely hear "Abraham, Isaac, and Israel." (Though there are a few instances as pointed out below.) Why is Jacob not granted his new name when his covenant participation is referenced? Even in Genesis, once Abram is renamed Abraham in Gen 17:5, he is never again referred to as Abram, but "Jacob" and "Israel" continue to be used almost interchangeably throughout the Genesis narrative. Not simply looking for opinions, but rather if someone has had insight (possibly building upon the insight of others) that can shed light on this. The theory has been posed that it could be as simple as avoiding confusion between Israel the nation and Israel the person - which is verifiable because it can be assumed that "Israel" was a people group even if Moses wrote the pentateuch with his own hand. If no significant research has been done on this topic, I may endeavor to spend a few weeks/months on answering my own question because I do believe it is valid and I do believe it is appropriately a matter of scholarly research.