In Exodus, God commands Moses to strike a rock, and promises to make water flow in the desert for the people. > Behold, I will stand before you there on the rock at Horeb, and you > shall strike the rock, and water shall come out of it, and the people > will drink.” And Moses did so, in the sight of the elders of Israel. > (Exodus 17:6 ESV) Later on, God tells Moses to speak to a rock, promising to make water flow in the desert again. However, Moses strikes the rock again instead of speaking to it. Because of just this one thing, God tells Moses that he will no longer be permitted bring the people into the Promised Land. > “Take the staff, and assemble the congregation, you and Aaron your > brother, and **tell the rock before their eyes to yield its water**. > So you shall bring water out of the rock for them and give drink to > the congregation and their cattle.” 9 And Moses took the staff from > before the Lord, as he commanded him. 10 Then Moses and Aaron gathered > the assembly together before the rock, and he said to them, “Hear now, > you rebels: shall we bring water for you out of this rock?” 11 And > Moses lifted up his hand and **struck the rock** with his staff twice, > and water came out abundantly, and the congregation drank, and their > livestock. 12 And the Lord said to Moses and Aaron, “Because you did > not believe in me, to uphold me as holy in the eyes of the people of > Israel, therefore **you shall not bring this assembly into the land > that I have given them**.” (Numbers 20:8-12 ESV, emphasis added) Why was the punishment so harsh for what seems like a small infraction? Was there something greater or more symbolic going on here?

Please note, I am not asking what was inside the Ark of the Covenant (question asked in June 2013) but what happened to Aaron's budding staff and the jar of manna by the time the Ark of the Covenant was placed in the temple built by Solomon. Exodus 16:33-34 says the jar of manna was placed in the Ark in front of the stone tablets. Numbers 17:10 says Aaron's budding staff was placed in front of/before the Ark of the Covenant. 1 Kings 8:9 and 2 Chronicles 5:10 both say that by the time the Ark of the Covenant was placed in the temple built by Solomon there was nothing inside the Ark except for the two stone tablets of the testimony/covenant. However, Hebrews 9:1-4 says the Ark contained the two stone tablets (the terms of the covenant), Aaron's rod (or staff) and the gold jar containing manna. What happened to Aaron's budding staff and the gold jar of manna? Were they lost or were they stolen? And why does the writer of Hebrews mention them?

Numbers 24:17 says: >*“I see him, but not now; I behold him, but not near. A star shall come out of Jacob, and a scepter shall rise out of Israel; he shall crush the skulls of Moab and break down all the sons of Sheth.”* This verse is commonly understood by some Christian traditions to be a Messianic prophecy pointing to Jesus Christ—with the “star” and “scepter” symbolizing His **divine authority** and **kingship**. However, the latter part of the verse includes a violent image: >*“he shall crush the skulls of Moab.”* According to those who believe Jesus is the fulfillment of this prophecy, how did he fulfill this part of the verse? This is because this verse was fulfilled in David who led his armies against the Moabites and conquered them, so how do they reconcile that?

Leviticus 23 introduces several appointed festivals/holy convocations. The chapter starts with: > The Lord said to Moses, > > 2 “Speak to the Israelites and say to them: ‘These are my **appointed festivals**, the appointed festivals of the Lord, which you are to proclaim as **sacred assemblies**. - Lev 23:1-2 (NIV) Then the festivals / holy convocations are enumerated: 1. **The weekly Sabbath** (Lev 23:3) 2. The Passover and the Festival of Unleavened Bread (Lev 23:4-8) 3. Offering the Firstfruits (Lev 23:9-14) 4. The Festival of Weeks (Lev 23:15-22) 5. The Festival of Trumpets (Lev 23:23-25) 6. The Day of Atonement (Lev 23:26-32) 7. The Festival of Tabernacles (Lev 23:33-44) Similarly, in Numbers 28 and 29 we find a similar list: 1. Daily Offerings (Num 28:1-8) 2. **Sabbath Offerings** (Num 28:9-10) 3. Monthly Offerings (a.k.a. New Moons) (Num 28:11-15) 4. The Passover (Num 28:16-25) 5. The Festival of Weeks (Num 28:26-31) 6. The Festival of Trumpets (Num 29:1-6) 7. The Day of Atonement (Num 29:7-11) 8. The Festival of Tabernacles (Num 29:12-40) It's not rare to come across Christians who claim that the weekly sabbath (Lev 23:3, Num 28:9-10) is still in effect, while all the other festivals and holy convocations are not (e.g. (https://sdarm.org/publications/periodicals/sbl/en/2009/1/11) , (https://naturesanswer.com/topic/colossians-2%3A16-sabbath-2283ef) , (https://www.the-ten-commandments.org/isthesabbathaceremoniallawormorallaw.html) , (http://www.sdanet.org/atissue/books/qod/q16.htm)) . What is the biblical basis for that claim? ________________________________ As requested in the comments, I'll briefly summarize the core ideas presented by some of these sites: 1. This [site](https://www.the-ten-commandments.org/isthesabbathaceremoniallawormorallaw.html) (and this follow-up [publication](https://www.the-ten-commandments.org/wasthesabbathabolished.html) on the same site) basically claims that the weekly sabbath belongs to the moral law, whereas the remaining feasts and holy convocations belong to the ceremonial law, and therefore they conclude that the weekly sabbath still stands but the others are abolished because they were "shadows". 2. This [site](http://www.sdanet.org/atissue/books/qod/q16.htm) essentially says the same thing: it talks about the concepts of "ceremonial law" and "moral law", claims that the weekly sabbath in particular is "moral" rather than "ceremonial", and, thus, concludes that the weekly sabbath is still in effect.

I'm going thru Numbers and maybe I missed something. Numbers 32:33-39 mentions Moses giving land to the Gadites, Reubenites and the half-tribe of Manasseh. Later in Numbers 34:17-29 , it names one leader from each tribe to help assign land to the "remaining" tribes. The tribes of Reuben and Gad aren't in the list understandably because they got their share in Numbers 32 but Manasseh is in the list. (v 23) . Why is Manasseh listed twice to receive land? Did I miss something important in an earlier passage or did I misunderstand something that happened in the history of the Israelites exodus? Am I misunderstanding what "half-tribe" means?

In Numbers 15:22-24, it talks about the community sinning unintentionally (v22) and the community not being aware of it (v24), how would the community know to give the specific burnt, grain, and drink offering? It's without their knowledge so unless there was a failure of something happening (Achan in Joshua 7), how would anyone know the community had sinned? I understand that a sin committed with or without knowledge of the law is still a sin but other than some outside event occurring or not occurring, how would anyone know? Also, since this is the community's sin, where does the offering come from? Does the community have a flock or herd of animals to choose from for their respective offerings? I assume if it's a personal offering, the animal comes from your flock or herd but that's just my assumption.

>Then stood up Phinehas and executed judgment ... and that was counted to him for **righteousness unto all generations for evermore**. [Psalm 106:30,31 KJV.] > >Phinehas hath turned my wrath away ... wherefore .. I give unto him a covenant of peace and he shall have it **and his seed** after him, the covenant of an **everlasting priesthood**. [Numbers 25:11-13, KJV ] The covenant here expressed regards righteousness and is promised to the seed of Phinehas (not as of many seeds - see Galatians 3:16 - but of one) everlastingly. Now, Elizabeth was of the daughters of Aaron. And Mary, the mother of Jesus, was Elizabeth's close relative (Luke 1:5 and 36) not by marriage but by blood (Luke 1:35-40). Therefore Mary was of the tribe of Levi by birth. Only by marriage was she of the tribe of Judah, not by birth or blood. Nor could **any man** descended (naturally, by any means) from Jeconiah onwards ascend the throne for : >Thus saith the LORD, Write ye this man childless, a man that shall not prosper in his days: for **no man of his seed** shall prosper, sitting upon the throne of David, and ruling any more in Judah. [Jeremiah 22:30, KJV.] The curse on Jeconiah was impossible to overcome, by any natural means or by any devious manipulation of the royal rights. It was finished. Humanity was prevented from ascending the throne, for ever. But then a 'woman compassed a man' and a man married that woman. And that changed everything. Yet that humanity formed within Mary did have a connection ... to Phinehas and to a promise of an everlasting Priesthood. The significance of this seems to have escaped Protestants, as far as I can tell, despite the fact that it is immensely important regarding the matter of justification by faith, the accounting of the righteousness of God to the faith of them that believe in Jesus Christ. My supposition is that Protestants, rejecting the worship of Mary, have nevertheless neglected to consider her contribution and have overlooked the importance of her genealogy 1 in regard to the promises made to Phinehas and inherited by Jesus, through Mary. (Just as promises were made to David, the king, and were inherited by Jesus, through - adoption by - Joseph.) **Is this so, that this has been neglected ?** Or is it the case that some Protestants have noticed the significance of these two highly important passages in Psalm 106 and Numbers 25 and have recognized the significance of what is inherited through Phinehas and Mary, as we see so much inherited through David and Joseph ? And, if so, where is this recognition documented ? ----------------------------- 1 Just for background interest I add the following : With considerable similarity to the tripled repeat of fourteen generations - the royal line - from Abraham to Christ through Judah (see Matthew 1:1-15) it can be shown that there is a tripled repeat of twelve generations (the significant number of covenant) from Aaron to Christ through Phinehas and Mary. [The genealogy in Luke is sometimes claimed to be Mary's genealogy but it is clearly not so by its content. Luke's list is not the *royal line* (the throne often not passing by direct heritage) but is the *natural line* of begetting.] Data in Ezra, Nehemiah and Chronicles gives the following : Twelve generations from Aaron to the days of David: Aaron, Eleazar, Phinehas, Abishua, Bukki, Uzzi, Zerahiah, Meraioth, Amariah, Ahitub, Zadok, Ahimaaz Twelve generations from David to the Babylonian captivity: Ahimaaz, Azariah, Johanna, Azariah, Amariah, Ahitub, Zadok, Shallum, Hilkiah, Azariah, Seraiah, Ezra Twelve generations from Captivity until Christ: Ezra, Jeshua, Joiakim, Eliashib, Joiada, Jonathan, Jaddua, [G8 G9 G10] Mary, Jesus called Christ. G8 is either Levi or Eleazar G9 is either Melchi or Matthan G10 is Joachim G8, G9 and G10 are not recorded in scripture but recorded in Doctrina Jacobi and by Tiberias and by John of Damascus. Any further information on this genealogy would be welcome either publicly or privately.

In a discussion about the trinity, I was asked about Numbers. I was completely stumped. **Numbers 23:19** > God is not a man, that he should lie; neither the son of man, that he > should repent: hath he said, and shall he not do it? or hath he > spoken, and shall he not make it good? "If Numbers says that God is not a man, how can Jesus be God?" Is the question I was presented and I had no answer.

**Are blue rosary beads based on blue ribband (tzitzit) from Numbers 15?** **Numbers 15:38-39** (KJV) : > "38 Speak unto the children of Israel, and bid them that they make them fringes in the borders of their garments throughout their generations, and that they **put upon the fringe of the borders a ribband of blue**: > > 39 And it shall be unto you for a fringe, that ye may look upon it, and remember all the commandments of the Lord, and do them"

From what I understand, the Hebrew title “בְּמִדְבַּר” of the Book of Numbers literally translates to “In the Wilderness”. Why is it called Numbers instead?

I’m currently participating in The Bible in a Year Podcast (unsponsored but you should totally do it, very well made). We are currently in Numbers and Dueteronomy, and in the book of Numbers, there seems to be pages and pages of lists of families and their names, specifically in Numbers 26. What is the significance of having these here? What importance did they have to their Jewish ancestors?

By Feast Days / Appointed Festivals / Holy Convocations I mean: 1. The weekly Sabbath (Lev 23:3) 2. The Passover and the Festival of Unleavened Bread (Lev 23:4-8) 3. Offering the Firstfruits (Lev 23:9-14) 4. The Festival of Weeks (Lev 23:15-22) 5. The Festival of Trumpets (Lev 23:23-25) 6. The Day of Atonement (Lev 23:26-32) 7. The Festival of Tabernacles (Lev 23:33-44) A parallel list is also found in Numbers 28 & 29: 1. Daily Offerings (Num 28:1-8) 2. Sabbath Offerings (Num 28:9-10) 3. Monthly Offerings (a.k.a. New Moons) (Num 28:11-15) 4. The Passover (Num 28:16-25) 5. The Festival of Weeks (Num 28:26-31) 6. The Festival of Trumpets (Num 29:1-6) 7. The Day of Atonement (Num 29:7-11) 8. The Festival of Tabernacles (Num 29:12-40) What is the biblical basis for believing that all (or most) of the holy convocations listed above are **NOT** morally binding for Christians today? *Note: the counterpart question is available at [What is the biblical basis for believing that the Feast Days / Appointed Festivals / Holy Convocations are still morally binding for Christians today?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/84625/50422)* _________________ Similar questions: - [What is the biblical basis for NOT keeping a literal physical Sabbath rest every seventh day?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/82507/50422) - [What is the biblical basis for NOT tithing?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/80717/50422)

By Feast Days / Appointed Festivals / Holy Convocations I mean: 1. The weekly Sabbath (Lev 23:3) 2. The Passover and the Festival of Unleavened Bread (Lev 23:4-8) 3. Offering the Firstfruits (Lev 23:9-14) 4. The Festival of Weeks (Lev 23:15-22) 5. The Festival of Trumpets (Lev 23:23-25) 6. The Day of Atonement (Lev 23:26-32) 7. The Festival of Tabernacles (Lev 23:33-44) A parallel list is also found in Numbers 28 & 29: 1. Daily Offerings (Num 28:1-8) 2. Sabbath Offerings (Num 28:9-10) 3. Monthly Offerings (a.k.a. New Moons) (Num 28:11-15) 4. The Passover (Num 28:16-25) 5. The Festival of Weeks (Num 28:26-31) 6. The Festival of Trumpets (Num 29:1-6) 7. The Day of Atonement (Num 29:7-11) 8. The Festival of Tabernacles (Num 29:12-40) What is the biblical basis for believing that all (or most) of the holy convocations listed above are still morally binding for Christians today? *Note: the counterpart question is available at [What is the biblical basis for believing that the Feast Days / Appointed Festivals / Holy Convocations are NOT morally binding for Christians today?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/84626/50422)*

Numbers 16 describes the Levites revolting against Moses and Aaron. In proving the Lord sent him to do all those things, Moses said > "But if the Lord brings about something totally new, and the earth > opens its mouth and swallows them...you will know that these men have > treated the Lord with contempt. As soon as he finished saying all > this, the ground under them split apart and the earth opened its mouth > and swallowed them...the earth closed over them, and they perished and > were gone from the community." Numbers 16:30-33 It sounds like "something totally new" was an earthquake causing the ground to split. Is there any evidence for or against this?

Are there still leaders of these households or are they obsolete? 1. Reuben: 46,500 2. Simeon: 59,300 3. Gad: 45,650 4. Judah: 74,600 5. Issachar: 54,400 6. Zebulun: 57,400 7. Joseph: - Ephraim: 40,500 - Manasseh: 32,200 9. Benjamin: 35,400 10. Dan: 62,700 11. Asher: 41,500 12. Naphtali: 53,400 13. Levites: ?

In Numbers 21:4-9, Moses makes a bronze serpent on a stick to heal the Hebrews' snake bites, as per God's instructions. They don't worship it, but they are to look at it in order to live. Why did God order a statue of a serpent knowing very well that a serpent is used to refer to Satan himself(Genesis 3:1)??? Help me understand the connection between the serpent used by God and the one symbolising His adversary...

This is a followup question to the question about Jesus speaking to crowds of 5,000 people without audio installation. The book of Exodus says that Israelites had 600,000 men of fighting age. And often it has paragraphs like this: >Exodus 35:4 > > Moses said to the whole Israelite community, "This is what the LORD has commanded: There are many, many more examples like this. Sometimes, when Moses says something, and then events happen that affect the whole community: > Numbers 16:31 ([NIRV](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Numbers+16&version=NIRV)) > > 31 As soon as Moses finished speaking all of those words, what he had said came true. The ground under them broke open. 32 It opened its mouth. It swallowed up those men. In fact, it swallowed up everyone who lived in their houses. It swallowed all of Korah’s men. And it swallowed up everything they owned. 33 They went down into the grave alive. Everything they owned went down with them. The ground closed over them. They died. And so they disappeared from the community. So, how was a community of at least 600,000 males able to hear Moses when he addressed them? That is 30-times more people than would fill Madison Square Garden.

Why does 1 Corinthians 10:8 say that 23,000 Israelites fell in one day for committing fornication, while Numbers 25:9 gives the figure as 24,000? 1 Cor 10:8 NWT >Neither let us practice sexual immorality, as some of them committed sexual immorality, only to fall, 23,000 of them in one day. Num 25:9 NWT >Those who died from the scourge amounted to 24,000.

> "While Israel lived in Shittim, the people began to whore with the daughters of Moab. 2 These invited the people to the sacrifices of their gods, and the people ate and bowed down to their gods. 3 So Israel yoked himself to Baal of Peor. And the anger of the Lord was kindled against Israel. 4 **And the Lord said to Moses, “Take all the chiefs of the people and hang[a] them in the sun before the Lord, that the fierce anger of the Lord may turn away from Israel.” 5 And Moses said to the judges of Israel, “Each of you kill those of his men who have yoked themselves to Baal of Peor.”** 6And behold, one of the people of Israel came and brought a Midianite woman to his family, in the sight of Moses and in the sight of the whole congregation of the people of Israel, while they were weeping in the entrance of the tent of meeting. 7 When Phinehas the son of Eleazar, son of Aaron the priest, saw it, he rose and left the congregation and took a spear in his hand 8 and went after the man of Israel into the chamber and pierced both of them, the man of Israel and the woman through her belly. **Thus the plague on the people of Israel was stopped. 9 Nevertheless, those who died by the plague were twenty-four thousand.**"- Numbers 25:1-9 Did the victims of this plague refer to the execution of those who participated in the Baal-Peor incident? Or did it refer to Israelite bystanders who simply paid a major price for their sinful leaders?

> Now Balak son of Zippor saw all that Israel had done to the Amorites, and Moab was terrified because there were so many people. Indeed, Moab was filled with dread because of the Israelites. > > The **Moabites** said to the elders of **Midian**, “This horde is going to lick up everything around us, as an ox licks up the grass of the field.” > > So Balak son of Zippor, who was king of Moab at that time, sent messengers to summon Balaam son of Beor, who was at Pethor, near the Euphrates River, in his native land. *(Numbers 22:2-5a, NIV)*
> On that day the Book of Moses was read aloud in the hearing of the people and there it was found written that no **Ammonite** or **Moabite** should ever be admitted into the assembly of God, because they had not met the Israelites with food and water but had hired Balaam to call a curse down on them. (Our God, however, turned the curse into a blessing.) When the people heard this law, they excluded from Israel all who were of foreign descent. *(Nehemiah 13:1-3, NIV)* Why did the Israelites at the time of Nehemiah exclude the Ammonites and Moabites from entering the Temple, when it was originally the Midianites and Moabites who hired Balaam?