According to Catholic exegetes, were Mary Magdalen and Mary of Bethany the same person?

I was listening to a preacher and he made this claim that a woman was the first witness to the risen Christ because traditionally our societies hold the testimony of women to be more credible than that of men. I thought Mary became the first witness because of co-incidence but he suggests otherwise, is he correct that Mary Magdalene being the first witness to the risen Christ was part of God's plan because the testimony of women is more credible?

[Luke 8:2](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Luke%208&version=ESV) and [Mark 16:9](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark+16%3A9-11&version=ESV) mention that Mary Magdalene had seven demons, which Jesus exorcised. In spiritual warfare literature, it's common to distinguish different types of demonic influence; example in the article [The Extraordinary Actions of the Devil](https://catholicexchange.com/the-extraordinary-actions-of-the-devil) . [Another](https://www.imdb.com/title/tt10864014/trivia) tries to give the following definitions: - *Demonic Possession* - It's when a demon takes over a person's body without their consent. It's what you see in most movies. It involves speaking in tongues, sudden personality changes, sudden violence, even superhuman strength. - *Physical Pain* - This is a sickness or an injury due to a demon being inside a person. It doesn't impact the soul, just the body. - *Diabolic Oppression* - This is when a demon torments a person, causing tragic events in their lives the loss of a loved one, the loss of a job, a home. Basically, the story of Job. - *Diabolical Infestation* - It's when demonic entities take over a house, an object, even an animal. - *Diabolical Subjugation* - It's when the possessed invites the demon into their lives. They do this through game play or pledging their soul to the devil. It's real in that if a human wants power, they can trade away their future for that power. - *Diabolical Obsession* - It's when a person has constant, overwhelming and irrational thoughts, making them act in perverse ways. It's hard to detect because it's the most highly functional of all the possessions. But it can lead to suicidal ideation and murder. But today, especially in Western countries, people tend to "psychologize" those demonic influence into chronic depression, etc, such as how [this article](https://ssw.edu/blog/seven-demons/) tries to contemporize Mary Magdalene's seven demons. Rather than speculating from modern / Western lens or use Western categories (like the above), my complete question is: **using the best studies of demonology in Jesus's time, what is the nature of the 7 demons oppressing Mary Magdalene in terms of how the Gospel writers would have conceptualized it?** In other words, what did the gospel writers have in mind when choosing the words to narrate what Jesus did? Is it always a spiritual entity perceived to be gone out like in the Exorcist movie? Or on the other extreme, is it an idiomatic expression for what today we call mental or physical illness? Or is it something in between? The significance of this question is to enable a more faithful interpretation of the many Gospel passages on Jesus and the Apostles casting out demons, which today's Christian groups (esp. those with Freedom ministries) use as the basis of their practice. Some groups even take Mark 16:16-18 literally as the sign of a true believer ("... in my name they **will** cast out demons...") and exhorting them to practice Jesus-given authority to regularly perceive demonic influence in yourself / others and exorcise them. ### Preliminary research 1. A 2009 PhD Dissertation [Jesus, A Jewish Galilean Exorcist: A Socio-Political and Anthropological Investigation](https://macsphere.mcmaster.ca/handle/11375/17394) by Amanda Witmer, McMaster University 2. Book Article [Exorcism or Healing?: A Korean Preacher’s Re-Reading of Mark 5:1-20](https://www.vanderbilt.edu/AnS/religious_studies/SBL2008/Chun.doc) by Sejong Chun (Vanderbilt University), reviewed [here](https://aatfweb.org/2015/02/04/article-review-sejong-chun-exorcism-or-healing-a-korean-preachers-reading-of-mark-51-20/) , part of the 2010 book [Mark: Texts @ Contexts](https://www.amazon.com/Mark-Texts-Contexts-Nicole-Duran/dp/0800659988) . This paper contains 5 plausible hermeneutical understanding of the Mark 5:1-20 story, demonstrating the horizon of interpretation we are looking for in this question. 3. [Demons and Politics: A Consideration of Jesus' Exorcisms in Mark](https://www.amazon.com/Demons-Politics-Andrew-Perry/dp/B004P9LQBE) a by Bible scholar [Andrew Perry](https://durham.academia.edu/AndrewPerry) , pdf available [here](https://www.academia.edu/32911343/Demons_and_Politics_A_Consideration_of_Jesus_Exorcisms_in_Mark) at his Academia site, commenting on three 20th century social study theories of exorcism discussed by Paul W. Hollenbach in his well-cited Journal of the American Religion 1981 article [Jesus, Demoniacs, and Public Authorities: A Socio-Historical Study](https://www.jstor.org/stable/1462450) 4. 2007 Master's Thesis [The Representation and Role of Demon Possession in Mark](https://escholarship.mcgill.ca/concern/theses/0k225g32p) by McGill Religious Studies student Eliza Rosenberg, which includes 15-page (!) list of works cited plus a 4-page list of modern exorcism accounts, mostly from news articles from 1995 to 2007.

I am looking into a myth: is there any evidence to the claim that Jesus and Mary of Magdala may have had an intimate relationship like either marriage or being engaged at least? I'm looking for sources, solid ones.

In [John 20:17](http://biblehub.com/john/20-17.htm) it is written that, when Jesus appears to Mary Magdalene after resurrection, He says to her: >Do not touch me, for I am not yet ascended to my Father However, Jesus does tell to other disciples to touch Him, after resurrection. For example, later on, in John 20:27, when Jesus appears to His disciples for a second time and Thomas (the Doubter) is with them, He says to Thomas: >Put your finger here; see my hands. Reach out your hand and put it into my side. Stop doubting and believe. Similarly, in [Luke 24:39](http://biblehub.com/luke/24-39.htm) it is written that post-resurrection Jesus said to His disciples: >See my hands and my feet, that it is I myself. Touch me, and see. For a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have. Thus, I fail to understand why Jesus would negate Mary Magdalene to touch Him but not to His disciples. **How have theologians and the teachings of Catholic, Anglican, Orthodox or Protestant churches interpreted the words of Jesus to Mary Magdalene?** How is the fact that He had not yet ascended to the Father related to Mary not touching Jesus? Surely, once He was gone to the Father, it would be impossible to her for touching Jesus! One possible explanation is that Jesus did not have a physical body (e.g. [this](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/15598/did-jesus-transform-into-spirit-form-after-resurrection) or [this](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/8368/was-jesus-resurrected-body-the-same-as-his-glorified-body-that-he-now-has-in-he) discussion). Personally, I do not believe this was the case, as it it at odd with the other texts (where Jesus says that "a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have"). Neither did [Aquinas](http://www.newadvent.org/summa/4054.htm) .

[John 12:3-8](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John%2012%3A3-8&version=NASB) : > 3 "Mary then took a pound of very expensive perfume of pure nard, and anointed the feet of Jesus and wiped His feet with her hair; and the house was filled with the fragrance of the perfume. 4 But Judas Iscariot, one of His disciples, the one who intended to betray Him, *said, 5 “Why was this perfume not sold for three hundred denarii and the proceeds given to poor people?” 6 Now he said this, not because he cared about the poor, but because he was a thief, and as he kept the money box, he used to steal from what was put into it. 7 Therefore Jesus said, “Leave her alone, so that she may keep it for the day of My burial. 8 For you always have the poor with you, but you do not always have Me.” What is the current day practical lesson of verse 8? > "For you always have the poor with you, but you do not always have Me" Jesus is complimenting Mary for anointing his feet with expensive perfume, but how could we as modern day Christians worship Jesus in such an equivalent way?

Have a look at the different versions of Jn 20:16 relating to the post-Resurrection appearance of Jesus to Mary Magdalene : > Jesus said to her, Mary! Turning around she said to Him in Hebrew, Rabboni!—which means Teacher or Master. (RMPC) > Jesus said to her, “Mary.” Turning around, she said to him in Aramaic, “Rabboni!”—which means “Teacher.” (CSB) Compare the salutation of Mary with that of the Apostles : > Now Thomas (also known as Didymus), one of the Twelve, was not with the disciples when Jesus came. So the other disciples told him, “We have seen the Lord!” (Jn 20:24-25) And that of `Doubting Thomas ': >Thomas said to him, “My Lord and my God!” (Jn 20:28). Now, the salutation `Teacher'is not something you use for someone who you know, has been dead for three days and and is suddenly appearing before you in a not-so-easily recognizable form. In retrospect , we see Mary mistaking Jesus for the gardener (Jn 20:15). Of course, we hear Mary telling the disciples that she saw the Lord (Jn 20:18) . But her initial reaction to the appearance puts one in doubt if she really understood that she was looking at the Risen Lord. My question therefore is: According to Catholic scholars, did Mary Magdalene understand at the garden that Jesus had risen from the dead ?

We read in Lk 8:1-3 > Soon afterwards he went on through cities and villages, proclaiming and bringing the good news of the kingdom of God. The twelve were with him, as well as some women who had been cured of evil spirits and infirmities: Mary, called Magdalene, from whom seven demons had gone out, and Joanna, the wife of Herod’s steward Chuza, and Susanna, and many others, **who provided for them out of their resources.** One can understand the phrase `provided for ' in different ways. One possibility is that the ladies were preparing food for Jesus'team after buying the raw material from their own savings. Another is that the ladies were rich and contributed to the money bag that was kept by Judas Iscariot, and from which the team would draw money from time to time. Now, the Gospels do not state much about the past life of Mary Magdalene, except for the mention of seven demons driven out of her. But, during a certain stage of the development of the Church, a characteristic trait of promiscuous past life was attributed to her. But one seriously doubts if Jesus would ever have accepted money from Mary Magdalene , had she earned it with a life of promiscuity. My question therefore is: According to Catholic scholars, does Lk 8:3 rule out the theory that Mary Magdalene had had a life of promiscuity before she became a disciple of Jesus ?

I was just reading in the [National Catholic Register](https://www.ncregister.com/news/pope-francis-adds-feast-of-martha-mary-and-lazarus-to-church-calendar) that Sts. Mary Martha and Lazarus have been added to the church calendar by Pope Francis and that the reason they weren't on before was because of some sort of concern over whether Martha and Lazarus's sister Mary was the same as Mary Magdalene (seem unlikely if Magdalene means where she's from and these siblings were from Bethany). The article doesn't address that concern, so I'm wondering if any new stuff has come to light or what Catholic scholars think is the relevance prohibiting having this 3-saint feast and a separate feast for St. Mary Magdalene. Does Pope Francis just not think it's a stumbling block worth worrying about or do we know for sure that they're separate people?

Why is Mary Magdalene the patron saint of hairdressers and when was the first time she was assigned this role? From [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mary_Magdalene) : > ## Patronage > Apothecaries; Kawit, Cavite; Atrani, Italy; Casamicciola Terme, Ischia; contemplative life; converts; glove makers; **hairdressers**; penitent sinners; people ridiculed for their piety; perfumeries; pharmacists; reformed prostitutes; sexual temptation; tanners; women

I don't really understand this part of the story in Luke 7:38. Why would Mary Magdalena use her hair to dry Jesus' feet? I have some clues, but I don't want to guide the replies. I'd like to know both, the symbolism, and the spiritual meaning (what does it teach to us). >As she stood behind him at his feet weeping, she began to wet his feet with her tears. Then she wiped them with her hair, kissed them and poured perfume on them. > >(NIV) .

At Luke 10:40-42 we read : " But Martha was distracted with much serving; and she went to him and said, “Lord, do you not care that my sister has left me to serve alone? Tell her then to help me.” But the Lord answered her, “Martha, Martha, you are anxious and troubled about many things; one thing is needful. Mary has chosen the good portion, which shall not be taken away from her.” But, at John 11:20, we see Martha taking the lead role in the events which lead to the resuscitation of Lazarus by Jesus : " When Martha heard that Jesus was coming, she went and met him, while Mary sat in the house " My question is: Has the Catholic Church made any comparative study of the faith of Martha vis-a-vis that of her sister, Mary, though the words of Jesus at Luke 10: 42 would have one believe that Mary was better at expressing her faith?

John 20:17: >Jesus said, "Do not touch me, for I have not yet returned to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, 'I am returning to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.'" Why did Jesus not want Mary to touch him, remembering that he allowed Thomas to touch him before he went to heaven?

A few weeks ago, I had the opportunity to watch ‘Jesus Christ Superstar’. It wasn't all that great and yes I found it a bit offensive, however it did get me thinking. Why does it seem as if Mary Magdalene was portrayed as a prostitute? She appears to have been a supportive force for Jesus, and not in any sexually immoral way at that. Could it be that during that time period women were seen as less than men, and those who were supportive were seen merely as prostitutes if they were not married? There seem to be several women throughout the Bible that were followers of Christ, and made a difference but were not seen as prostitutes, such as Phoebe in Romans 16:1-2. So why portray Magdalene as such?

Today I heard something most peculiar, and was wondering if there is a Biblical basis and/or if there were other denominations that teach this. An older gentleman whom I know very well, and almost think of as a father, during a discussion about Mary Magdalene said (verbatim): > Oh, well you see - some call her the "Black Madonna." (Because we had talked about theories as to whether her and Jesus *could have* been married - though this is irrelevant to the question at hand) This is a most perplexing "revelation" to me, knowing that Biblically we know that Mary was saved from a life of sin to serve Jesus Christ. I've looked all over the internet, and the most I can find about anything "Black Madonna" related is depictions of Mary, Mother of Jesus as a black woman. What is the basis for this teaching? Is there any Biblical basis it? What groups teach it today?