Surat Ali `Imran 3/55 : > ˹Remember˺ when Allah said, “O Jesus! I will take you1 and raise you > up to Myself. I will deliver you from those who disbelieve, and > elevate your followers above the disbelievers until the Day of > Judgment. Then to Me you will ˹all˺ return, and I will settle all your > disputes. I want to know here, who are the followers whom will be elevated. Is it Christians or Muslims or both. If, it includes Christians then of what type. Does it include monotheists Christians only or even those who believe in trinity and other ideas? Does it include monotheists Jews? Who are the "disbelievers" over whom the "followers" will be elevated.

I have a question about these ayat (5:51 and 3:28 ): > O you who have believed, do not take the Jews and the Christians as > allies. They are [in fact] allies of one another. And whoever is an > ally to them among you - **then indeed, he is [one] of them**. Indeed, > Allah guides not the wrongdoing people. > > Let not believers take disbelievers as allies rather than believers. > And whoever [of you] **does that has nothing with Allah**, except when > taking precaution against them in prudence. And Allah warns you of > Himself, and to Allah is the [final] destination. > Do they mean that whoever does this *literally* becomes a disbeliever and is expunged from Islam? Or does it mean that this action is very grievous but not real kufr?

From [3:112 ](https://quran.com/3/112) > "... they (People of the Book) have persistently disbelieved in God's revelation and killed prophets without any right" . What prophets does this passage refer to? Are there any specific prophets to which this relates passage relates? I have not yet read the Bible but the only named prophet I can think of that was killed by the People of the Book (in his case the Sanhedrin) was Yehoshua.

Here is Surat Al `Imran 3/55: > [Mention] when Allah said, "O Jesus, indeed **I will take you** and raise you to Myself and purify you from those who disbelieve and make those who follow you [in submission to Allah alone] superior to those who disbelieve until the Day of Resurrection. Then to Me is your return, and I will judge between you concerning that in which you used to differ. source In Turkish translation, the bold part is translated as "I will cause your death" or "I will kill you". What is really write in this verse? Does this verse say Jesus(puh) dead somehow, or not dead? Please, give answers supported by Quran, word meaning (from Arabic), maybe historical background. A mixture would be great! Please don't give answers supported by hadith, I already know enough hadith which says or implies Jesus(puh) is not dead. Thanks. **EDIT:** I am well aware that Quran says clearly Jesus(puh) didn't being killed by Jews or Romans. I am wondering that if Jesus(puh) is dead someway else, or raised up alive. Also can anyone give some example sentences with their English translation about different meanings of the word Mutawfeka which seems to be the Arabic word translated as "take"?

First of all, I apologize for the length of this question. But I think this is a very important subject to think about. Majority of Muslims believe that Imran in the Quran is father of Mary. But I think muslims are making a mistake. For the following reasons, I think Imran in the Quran is the father of Musa (pbuh) and Harun (pbuh), not the father of Mary: 1) In the Jewish scriptures, the father of Musa (pbuh) and Harun (pbuh) is "Amram". *Amram married his father's sister Jochebed, who bore him Aaron and Moses. Amram lived 137 years. (Exodus 6:20)* 2) In the New Testament, Mary is a relative/cousin of Elizabeth, who is from the lineage of Aaron (Harun). So this means Imran (Amram) is the ancestor of Mary. 3) Ancient biblical manuscripts have shown that the father of Mary was named "Joachim", not "Amram", nor "Imran". 4) In the Quran, Allah refers to Mary (mother of Jesus) as the "Ubnata Imran" in Surah Tahrim, Ayah 12. "Ubnata Imran" literally translates to "Daughter of Imran", but in Arabic tradition, this can also mean "grand-daughter of Imran" or "great grand-daughter of Imran" or "female descendant of Imran". 5) In the Quran, Allah refers to Mary (mother of Jesus) as "Ukhtu Harun" in Surah Maryam, Ayah 28. "Ukhtu Harun" translates to "Sister of Harun". Anyone who understands the language of the Quran should know that "sister" in the Quran can also refer to female descendant. So Mary is the female descendant of Harun (pbuh) and Imran. Not the daughter of Imran. 6) In the Quran, the mother of Mary is unnamed but she is called "Umra'atu Imran" in Surah Imran, Ayah 33. According to the English translated Quran, this translates to "Wife of Imran". However, in Arabic, "Umra'atu Imran" can also mean "Woman of Imran". This could mean that Mary is not the daughter of Imran, but her descendant. 7) Ancient biblical manuscripts have shown that the father of Mary was named "Joachim", not "Amram", not "Imran". 8) Allah says in Surah Imran, Ayah 33: *God did choose Adam and Noah, the family of Abraham, and the family of Imran above all people (Quran 3:33)* According to most Islamic scholars, Imran in this ayah refers to Amram, the father of Musa (pbuh) and Harun (pbuh).

Some translations of Surah Al-Imran verse 3:35 state this: > when a woman of [the House of] `Imran prayed: "O my Sustainer! Behold, unto Thee do I vow [the child] that is in, my womb, to be devoted to Thy service. Accept it, then, from me: verily, Thou alone art all-hearing, all-knowing!" I interpreted "a woman of" as one of multiple woman. Does this mean that Imran had multiple wives or consorts?

As mentioned in the question, the verses mentioned are **Surah Im'ran: Verse 146** > And how many a prophet [fought and] with him fought many religious > scholars. But they never lost assurance due to what afflicted them in > the cause of Allah, nor did they weaken or submit. And Allah loves the > steadfast. and **Surah Baqarah: Verse 214** > Or do you think that you will enter Paradise while such [trial] has > not yet come to you as came to those who passed on before you? They > were touched by poverty and hardship and were shaken until [even > their] messenger and those who believed with him said,"When is the > help of Allah ?" Unquestionably, the help of Allah is near. The question is that Surah Im'ran's verse mentions the fact that true believers and their prophets were **not** weakened when they faced adversities. However, Surah Baqarah mentions a slight counter-statement towards it by stating that prophets(together with their believers) were indeed **shakened** (*which is natural considering the adversities they faced*) and even got a "bit irresolute" when they cried out regarding the help of Allah. IMO both of these verses slightly contradict each other. Am I missing any important context/commentary here?

Referring to the Prophet Isa (Jesus): > And [make him] a messenger to the Children of Israel, [who will say], 'Indeed I have come to you with a sign from your Lord in that I design for you from clay [that which is] like the form of a bird, then I breathe into it and it becomes a bird by permission of Allah . And I cure the blind and the leper, and I give life to the dead - by permission of Allah. **And I inform you of what you eat and what you store in your houses.** Indeed in that is a sign for you, if you are believers. **And [I have come] confirming what was before me of the Torah and to make lawful for you some of what was forbidden to you.** And I have come to you with a sign from your Lord, so fear Allah and obey me. -- Qur'an 3:49-50 It's not clear to me what the Qur'an is referring to as being made lawful here. **Question**: What specifically does Jesus make lawful in Qur'an 3:50? Online searching uncovers some tafsir: > ... Thus he made lawful for them fish and birds which had no spikes; it is also said that he made it all lawful for them so that ba‘d ‘some’ means kull ‘all’. ... -- Tafsir al-Jalalayn (sourced from alTafsir.com ) > > That is, "I have come to efface and abolish the superstitions of your ignorant people, the hairsplitting of your jurists, the religious austerities of your ascetics and the restrictive additions made in the Law of Allah under the non-Muslim domination; I will make lawful or unlawful for you only those things which Allah has made lawful or unlawful." -- Maududi (sourced from alim.org ) (I didn't find a tafsir at QTafsir.com .) These give a partial answer to the question, but they (seem to) say different things and don't talk about the completeness of their statements.

In the seventh ayah of Surat Al 'Imran, reference is made to "الراسخون فی علم" (those who are firmly rooted in knowledge): >هُوَ الَّذِيَ أَنزَلَ عَلَيْكَ الْكِتَابَ مِنْهُ آيَاتٌ مُّحْكَمَاتٌ هُنَّ أُمُّ الْكِتَابِ وَأُخَرُ مُتَشَابِهَاتٌ فَأَمَّا الَّذِينَ في قُلُوبِهِمْ زَيْغٌ فَيَتَّبِعُونَ مَا تَشَابَهَ مِنْهُ ابْتِغَاء الْفِتْنَةِ وَابْتِغَاء تَأْوِيلِهِ وَمَا يَعْلَمُ تَأْوِيلَهُ إِلاَّ اللّهُ وَ**الرَّاسِخُونَ فِي الْعِلْمِ** يَقُولُونَ آمَنَّا بِهِ كُلٌّ مِّنْ عِندِ رَبِّنَا وَمَا يَذَّكَّرُ إِلاَّ أُوْلُواْ الألْبَابِ >He it is who has revealed the book to you; some of its verses are decisive, they are the basis of the book, and others are allegorical; then as for those in whose hearts there is perversity they follow the part of it which is allegorical, seeking to mislead and seeking to give it (their own) interpretation. But none knows its interpretation except allah, and **those who are firmly rooted in knowledge** say: We believe in it, it is all from our lord; and none do mind except those having understanding. ([Surat 'Ali 'Imran 7](http://quran.com/3/7)) Who is this phrase referring to?

> How shall Allah guide a people who disbelieved after their belief and after they bore witness that the Messenger (Muhammad ﷺ) is true and after clear proofs had come unto them? And Allah guides not the people who are Zalimun (polytheists and wrong-doers). They are those whose recompense is that on them (rests) the Curse of Allah, of the angels, and of all mankind. They will abide therein (Hell). Neither will their torment be lightened, nor will it be delayed or postponed (for a while). > > \Aal 'Imraan [3:86-88 \]. And yet after all that, Allah, may He be glorified, says: > Except for those who repent after that and correct themselves. For indeed, Allah is Forgiving and Merciful. > > \Aal 'Imraan [3:89 \]. Allah, may He be glorified and exalted, says (interpretation of the meaning): > Verily, those who disbelieved after their Belief and then went on increasing in their disbelief (i.e. disbelief in the Quran and in Prophet Muhammad ﷺ) - never will their repentance be accepted [because they repent only by their tongues and not from their hearts]. And they are those who are astray. > > \Aal 'Imraan [3:90 \] **Question:** In this verse 3:90, what constitutes an increase in disbelief? If a person who was a Muslim commits shirk and becomes a murtad, then he regrets it and finds out that a murtad can come back to Islam so he repents and recites *Kalima*, but later he again apostates and becomes a murtad again, but later regrets it, he may feel that that repeated apostasy cannot be forgiven and feels hopeless. If after this, he commits _kufr_ in his mind once again, then regrets it and repents. If he tries to follow Islam, will Allah forgive such a confused person, and can he enter Islam again?

I was wondering about the verse from the Qur'an (http://quran.com/3/28) : >"Let not believers take disbelievers as allies rather than believers. And whoever [of you] does that has nothing with Allah, except when taking precaution against them in prudence. And Allah warns you of Himself, and to Allah is the [final] destination." > > --- Sahih International --- And another translation: >"Let not the believers take the disbelievers as Awliya' (supporters, helpers, etc.) instead of the believers, and whoever does that will never be helped by Allah in any way, except if you indeed fear a danger from them. And Allah warns you against Himself (ie. His Punishment), and to Allah is the final return." > > --- Muhsin Khan --- I was wondering about the implications of this verse and to what extent one can take help from non-Muslims, as also having friendship and warm relations with them. For example, I have several good friends from among non-Muslims who help me with advise in my work, and I also have good business — and consequently personal — relations with many of them. Is this allowed?

I have a query on this verse from Surah Al Imran (ayah no 26) > Say, "O Allah , Owner of Sovereignty, You give sovereignty to whom You > will and You take sovereignty away from whom You will. You honor whom > You will and You humble whom You will. In Your hand is [all] good. > Indeed, You are over all things competent. My question is it is clear from this verse that Allah honor or give respect to those whom He will and disgrace others at His will. But it is also commonly said that > Respect is earned not given That it is human beings who earn respect. This contradicts what is said by Allah. It is clearly said that it is Allah who gives respect at His will.

My question relates to the following ayah: > O People of the Scripture, why do you argue about Abraham while the Torah and the Gospel were not revealed until after him? Then will you not reason? -- Qur'an 3:65 In e.g. Tanwîr al-Miqbâs min Tafsîr Ibn ‘Abbâs (source: Al Tafsir ), we have the following: > Then Allah mentions their dispute with the Prophet (pbuh) in that they said they are of those who have surrendered to Allah and follow the Religion of Abraham, claiming this to be in the Torah. So Allah said: (O People of the Scripture! Why will ye argue about Abraham, when the Torah and the Gospel were not revealed till after him?) after Abraham. (Have ye then no sense?) that it is not mentioned in them that Abraham was Jew or Christian. This puzzles me, as the Qur'an was also not revealed until after Prophet Abraham. I'm wondering how to make sense of this: **Question**: Why is it relevant that the Torah and the Gospel were not revealed until after Prophet Abraham, but not the Qur'an?

Who are these people? **3:113 - 115** > They are not [all] the same; among the People of the Scripture is a > community standing [in obedience], reciting the verses of Allah during > periods of the night and prostrating [in prayer]. > They believe in Allah and the Last Day, and they enjoin what is right > and forbid what is wrong and hasten to good deeds. And those are among > the righteous. > And whatever good they do - never will it be removed from them. And > Allah is Knowing of the righteous.

> O you who have believed, do not consume usury, doubled and multiplied, but fear Allah that you may be successful. -- Qur'an 3:130 **Question**: What does "doubled and multiplied" means in the context of usury in Qur'an 3:130? I'm unclear under what circumstances this would be meaningful. I found some tafsir, but they didn't clarify what this means, e.g.: > ... by increasing the amount to be repaid when the loan period comes to an end ... Tafsir al-Jalalayn > > ... Among this is the loaning of one thing, demanding twice as much in return, and asking from you seven hundred times its amount, ad infinitum. ... -- Al Qushairi Tafsir The latter one even reads as if only large quantities of interest are forbidden, but I don't think that's accurate.