Why did Musa عَلَيْهِ ٱلسَّلَامُ banish Samiri but only scold Harun عَلَيْهِ ٱلسَّلَامُ? > قَالَ يَـٰهَـٰرُونُ مَا مَنَعَكَ إِذْ رَأَيْتَهُمْ ضَلُّوٓا۟ ٩٢ > > Moses scolded ˹his brother˺, “O Aaron! What prevented you, when you saw them going astray, > > أَلَّا تَتَّبِعَنِ ۖ أَفَعَصَيْتَ أَمْرِى ٩٣ > > from following after me? How could you disobey my orders?” > > قَالَ يَبْنَؤُمَّ لَا تَأْخُذْ بِلِحْيَتِى وَلَا بِرَأْسِىٓ ۖ إِنِّى خَشِيتُ أَن تَقُولَ فَرَّقْتَ بَيْنَ بَنِىٓ إِسْرَٰٓءِيلَ وَلَمْ تَرْقُبْ قَوْلِى ٩٤ > > Aaron pleaded, “O son of my mother! Do not seize me by my beard or ˹the hair of˺ my head. I really feared that you would say, ‘You have caused division among the Children of Israel, and did not observe my word.’” > قَالَ فَمَا خَطْبُكَ يَـٰسَـٰمِرِىُّ ٩٥ > > Moses then asked, “What did you think you were doing, O Sâmiri?” > قَالَ فَٱذْهَبْ فَإِنَّ لَكَ فِى ٱلْحَيَوٰةِ أَن تَقُولَ لَا مِسَاسَ ۖ وَإِنَّ لَكَ مَوْعِدًۭا لَّن تُخْلَفَهُۥ ۖ وَٱنظُرْ إِلَىٰٓ إِلَـٰهِكَ ٱلَّذِى ظَلْتَ عَلَيْهِ عَاكِفًۭا ۖ لَّنُحَرِّقَنَّهُۥ ثُمَّ لَنَنسِفَنَّهُۥ فِى ٱلْيَمِّ نَسْفًا ٩٧ > >Moses said, “Go away then! And for ˹the rest of your˺ life you will surely be crying, ‘Do not touch ˹me˺!’1 Then you will certainly have a fate2 that you cannot escape. Now look at your god to which you have been devoted: we will burn it up, then scatter it in the sea completely.” Taha

In most ayahs in Qur'an, we found that السَّمَاوَاتِ (heavens) is mentioned first, and الْأَرْضَ (earth) is mentioned second. (see ). However, in Surat Ţāhā, ayah 4, they are in reverse order. > >A revelation from He who created the earth and highest heavens, What is the benefit of this, and how does it relate to the subject of the surah? Also, it is interesting that the ordering returns back to its usual case in the 6th ayah of the same Surah. > >To Him belongs what is in the heavens and what is on the earth and what is between them and what is under the soil.

In Surah Taha, Allah says: > He will say, "My Lord, why have you raised me blind while I was [once] > seeing?" (Surah Taha, verse 125 ) From surah 'abasa, we know that the word used here and translated as blind, أَعْمَىٰ (a3maa) means *blind from birth*. It does not refer to a person who acquired blindness during their lifetime after having the ability to see. This seems interesting -- that a person who, by their own admission, *could see in their dunya life,* is now *resurrected blind (from birth).* What is the significance of the word a'maa here, as opposed to a different word that could have been used to describe "could once see but is now blind"?