**Surat No. 7 Ayat NO. 187 They ask you, [O Muhammad], about the Hour: when is its arrival? Say, "Its knowledge is only with my Lord. None will reveal its time except Him. It lays heavily upon the heavens and the earth. It will not come upon you except unexpectedly." They ask you as if you are familiar with it. Say, "Its knowledge is only with Allah , but most of the people do not know."** Farooq Tejani, who claims to "know" the date of the Hour as Muharram 01, 1532, says that "but 'most' of the people do not know" means that some people know when the Hour will come. How to respond to him?

Christianity describes ten plagues of Egypt : (a) water into blood, (b) frogs, (c) lice, (d) mixture of wild animals or flies, (e) diseased livestock, (f) boils, (g) thunderstorm of hail and fire, (h) locusts, (i) darkness for three days, and (j) death of firstborn. In contrast, the Qur'an says: > So We sent upon them the flood and locusts and lice and frogs and blood as distinct signs, but they were arrogant and were a criminal people. > Qur'an 7:133 This difference motivates the question: **Question**: Does Qur'an 7:133 imply there were five plagues of Egypt? Qur'an 17:101 says *We had certainly given Moses nine evident signs*, but it seems likely this also includes miracles like his glowing hand and his staff. In the context of Prophet Musa, we also have: > So each We seized for his sin; and among them were those upon whom We sent a storm of stones, and among them were those who were seized by the blast [from the sky], and among them were those whom We caused the earth to swallow, and among them were those whom We drowned. And Allah would not have wronged them, but it was they who were wronging themselves. > Qur'an 29:40 Some (or all) of them don't seem like "plagues" (which would ordinarily be interpreted as a widespread catastrophe). They seem more localized and targeted. I'm not sure if these count.

As we might already know, very few muslims today learn Quran by it's meaning. Many of us only learn to recite it. When asked, very few of them could answer that they knew the meaning of the verses they read. It makes me wonder. Do we actually misunderstood the word اِقْرَأْ (read) since a while?. It reminds me of the verse 2:170 from Al-Baqarah that kind of scolding us for following our forefathers even they knew nothing. There area two types of reading. First, you recite the words even you don't understand it. Second, you may not read it loud but you examine and understand it in your heart. So I come to the question, which type of reading the word اِقْرَأْ actually means. Is it both?. The more I read and try to understand the Quran, the more I realize that it doesn't talk about recitation or reading out loud by lips. It's about understanding it as the message from Allah. Surah Al-A'raf verse 7:179. > *Indeed, We have created for Jahannam many jinn and humans. They have hearts they do not understand with, eyes they do not see with, and ears they do not hear with. They are like cattle. In fact they are even less guided! Such people are entirely heedless.* The verse talks about using our eyes, ears, and heart, to read, hear, and understand Allah's words, which mentioned in previous verses. So my question is, are we not among those who refuse to read, hear, and understand Allah's words, choose to become more lost than a cattle, choose to become heedless, and choose to go to Jahannam?. If we are, that's terrifying and I don't want to become one.

We know from verses like this one that Musa (alayhi salaam), like the previous nations believe, did indeed receive tablets with some fiqh (rulings) from Allah (azza wa jal) when he visited Him in Tuwa. And that he broke the tablets. Do we have any verses or ahadith that explicitly mention what was listed on those tablets? I can't recall ever reading this.

According to the following verse, is it haram (forbidden) to speak when the holy Quran is reciting? Or it is Makruh? > (7:204) وَ إِذا قُرِئَ الْقُرْآنُ فَاسْتَمِعُوا لَهُ وَ أَنْصِتُوا > لَعَلَّکُمْ تُرْحَمُونَ > > So when the Qur'an is recited, then listen to it and pay attention > that you may receive mercy. (7:204)

While reciting surat al-'Araaf I passed by these verses: > And recite to them, [O Muhammad], the news of *him to whom we gave [knowledge of] Our signs, but he detached himself from them*; so Satan pursued him, and he became of the deviators. **(175)**
> And if We had willed, we could have elevated him thereby, but he adhered [instead] to the earth and followed his own desire. So his example is like that of the dog: if you chase him, he pants, or if you leave him, he [still] pants. That is the example of the people who denied Our signs. So relate the stories that perhaps they will give thought. **(176)** My question is the person whom have been given the signs of Allah and who has detached himself from them a "Known " person our is this verse only a general example, what do tafseer books say about "him"?

Regarding the ayah: > وَإِذْ قِيلَ لَهُمُ اسْكُنُوا هَٰذِهِ الْقَرْيَةَ وَكُلُوا مِنْهَا حَيْثُ شِئْتُمْ **وَقُولُوا حِطَّةٌ** وَادْخُلُوا الْبَابَ سُجَّدًا نَّغْفِرْ لَكُمْ خَطِيئَاتِكُمْ سَنَزِيدُ الْمُحْسِنِينَ > Qur'an 7:161 Some translations (sourced from Islam Awakened ) are: > And remember it was said to them: "Dwell in this town and eat therein as ye wish, but **say the word of humility** and enter the gate in a posture of humility: We shall forgive you your faults; We shall increase (the portion of) those who do good." > -- Yusuf Ali (Saudi Rev. 1985) > > And [mention, O Muhammad], when it was said to them, "Dwell in this city and eat from it wherever you will and **say, 'Relieve us of our burdens,'** and enter the gate bowing humbly; We will [then] forgive you your sins. We will increase the doers of good [in goodness and reward]." > -- Sahih International > > And (remember) when it was said to them: “Reside in this town and eat from there whatever you wish, and **say: ‘(O Allah) forgives our sins,’** and enter the gate prostrating (bowing with humility). We shall forgive you your sins. We shall increase (reward for) the righteous people.” > -- Abdul Hye I'm a bit puzzled as to why there's multiple, somewhat different translations of the part highlighted in bold. **Question**: In Qur'an 7:161, why is "say the word of humility" translated in various ways? The main relevant Arabic word seems to be حطة (ḥiṭṭa) = "alleviate". I'm not sure how this translates.

I based this question on the comments in this thread . Quran [7:29]: > Say: “My Lord hath commanded justice; and that ye set your whole selves (to Him) at **every time and Masjid (place of worship)**, and call upon Him, making your devotion sincere as in his sight: such as he created you in the beginning, so shall ye return.” [7:29] There are two actual arabic words contained in the sentence in bold above. The word for word translation is "every" and "masjid". As stated in the comments section of the linked thread . > The word “Masjid” used in this Ayah is used in a special way. The word could be translated as time of worship or place of worship. The translation above contains both of the meanings. How did one came to know this? What is the reference for the above statement? I would understand if the command is to "maintain yourselves at every TIME of worship". But if the command says "maintain yourselves at every PLACE of worship", this could be taken in many different ways. The word "every" here, it locks/adds a meaning to the word after it, in this case time / place, thus it could become either every time / every place. One foolish example is, it could be taken as: I should maintain myself at EVERY masjid that I know. Which makes me think...now how on earth would I do that? I just need to know the correct interpretation to this.. Regards

In Quran 7:27 Allah SWT states > Pickthall: "O Children of Adam! Let not Satan seduce you as he caused your (first) parents to go forth from the Garden and tore off from them their robe (of innocence) that he might manifest their shame to them. Lo! he seeth you, he and his tribe, from whence ye see him not. Lo! We have made the devils protecting friends for those who believe not." Why does Allah Almighty assign devils to those who disbelieve in Allah's revelations?

Regarding the verse > فَمَا كَانَ دَعْوَاهُمْ إِذْ جَاءَهُم بَأْسُنَا إِلَّا أَن قَالُوا إِنَّا كُنَّا ظَالِمِينَ > And their declaration when Our punishment came to them was only that they said, "Indeed, we were wrongdoers!" > Qur'an 7:5 those punished (presumably those in *cities have We destroyed* Qur'a 7:4 ) are said to say "إِنَّا كُنَّا ظَالِمِينَ", which Sahih International translates to "Indeed, we were wrongdoers". I'm wondering if we're meant to interpret this as one of the following (or something else): 1. those punished literally say "إِنَّا كُنَّا ظَالِمِينَ", in Arabic, perhaps via divine means, or perhaps because those punished lived in places where Arabic was spoken; 2. those punished say words that have this meaning, but not necessarily those exact words; or 3. something else e.g., it's metaphorical (possibly allegorical), and people didn't literally say this (we're just meant to understand its meaning). **Question**: Did those punished in Qur'an 7:5 literally say "إِنَّا كُنَّا ظَالِمِينَ" in Arabic?

> It is He who created you from one soul and created from it its mate **that he might dwell in security with her**. And when he covers her, she carries a light burden and continues therein. And when it becomes heavy, they both invoke Allah, their Lord, "If You should give us a good [child], we will surely be among the grateful." -- Qur'an 7:189 Translations of the part highlighted in bold vary (see Islam Awakened ), e.g.: - "...so that man might incline [with love] towards woman"; - "...that he might take rest in her"; - "...so that he may find comfort in her"; - "...that he rest in her"; - "...so that man might incline towards women [with love]". They all assert that women were created with a purpose. Moreover, most imply that the purpose of this creation is to benefit men in some way (even though what the purpose is varies from translation to translation). This implies that for a woman to realize the purpose she was created for, she needs a man (her husband). I'm wondering if this is a correct interpretation. **Question**: Does Qur'an 7:189 imply women were created to benefit men? There are some translations that don't seem to imply women were created to benefit men, e.g.: "...he may settle down with her"; and "...to reside with" (and the Sahih International, quoted at the top of the question). These sound more mutually beneficial. Tafsir al-Jalalayn gives another version again: "...that he might take rest in her and become intimate with her", which is partly to benefit men, and partly mutually beneficial.