this is something that has been bothering me for a while and I was hoping someone could answer or educate me on this topic. when a woman's husband dies she must wait 4 months and a couple of days before getting married. I understand that this rule is put out in case the woman is pregnant. However, the woman is not allowed to wear jewelry, perfume or anything that may beautify her in order to show respect to her husband who has passed away. she cannot go out with friends to feel better and can only leave the house for necessity. I don't think this is necessarily bad but what bothers me is that when a mans wife dies, he does not have to show any respect or mourn his wife's passing away. in fact he can marry someone else a day after her passing away. isn't there some kind of respect shown for a wife who's passed? why is a wife worth so much less than a husband? it's starting to seem like a wife is required to love and respect her husband more than he is required to love and respect her.

Safiyyah bint huay and Zainab bint Jahsh were Prophets wives. Safiyyah's husband was killed. Did she adhere to iddah before marriage to prophet? Was Iddah applicable to her because of her parent faith Judaism? Zainab was divorced from zaid bin Harris, did she follow waiting period before marriage to prophet?

Two days ago my husband give me single talaq. I am still living in his house but we are avoiding each other he is not willing to ruju. what should I do ? do I immediately leave the house. leaving home is not possible immediately as my parents leaves in another country. that have some visa restriction. kindly guide me what should I do. what quran says to do.

I am going to have divorce from my husband , I haven’t had physical relationship with my husband since many years do I still need to do iddah after my divorce process completed Thanks Jazak Allah khair

I did Nikah 3 years ago and my rukhsati (wedding/first sleeping time/Dukhlah) was in near future. I still lived with my parents. My husband died when I was living with my parents. We never had any sexual relationship. We met in family gathering only. So is Iddah necessary for me too?

Assalam aleikum hazrat. i woukd like to know about my ammi jaan she is the widow of my father after his unfortunate death. As we have arranged my younger brother's nikah before the death of my father. Now the situation is here ammi is in iddat for 4 month 10 days and after 40 days of my father's death my younger brother's nikah date is fixed and whether our mom could get in place where nikah will going to place..(under hijaab)..please guide us.

When a muslim woman is divorced or widowed she has to undergo iddat before she can marry again. Prisoners of war can be turned into sex slaves, so do they also have to do iddat? If their husband was killed in battlefield do they have iddat for four months? Do they have iddat when their master dies?

I am performing iddah after getting divorce from my husband, still one month is left to complete. Due to some urgent problem I needed a man's help and to solve my issue he demanded me to do zina. I did zina with him unwillingly. I know its a sin and I continuously ask for forgiveness, but please tell me does it make any difference to iddah? Did it spoil my iddah?

My husband and I have been separated for 4 months, after he got arrested. He was on bail and was not allowed to return to the family home. In this time I have demanded that he gives me talaaq (divorce). Finally he gave me talaaq 2 weeks ago. My question is do I still need to observe the idaat (waiting) period as we have had no sexual relations in this time.

What is the ruling if a woman finds that she is pregnant during her iddah period? Does the iddah continue on with the 3 months rule or does it continue until the pregnancy is complete?

It was forbidden to have sex with them until they were distributed and their iddah period was over that's a long time. But this hadith clearly show they decided to have intercourse with them without waiting iddah period. > Abu Sa'id, did you hear Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) mentioning al-'azl? He said: Yes, and added: We went out with Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) on the expedition to the Bi'l-Mustaliq and took captive some excellent Arab women; and we desired them, for we were suffering from the absence of our wives, (but at the same time) we also desired ransom for them. So we decided to have sexual intercourse with them but by observing 'azl (Withdrawing the male sexual organ before emission of semen to avoid-conception). But we said: We are doing an act whereas Allah's Messenger is amongst us; why not ask him? So we asked Allah's Messenger (ﷺ), and he said: It does not matter if you do not do it, for every soul that is to be born up to the Day of Resurrection will be born. -- Sahih Muslim 1438

Can anyone please explain this hadith? Is this authentic? Zaid bin Hubab narrated to us from Hammad bin Salamah, from Iyas bin Mu'awiyah, regarding a man who bought a prepubescent slave-girl, do not those like her have sexual intercourse? He said, "There is nothing wrong with performing the sexual act upon her without observing Istibra." (Musannaf Ibn Abi Shaybah 16906, 16907)

I have heard conflicting views on the subject with some saying - Incase of first or second divorce, she needs her husband's permission - Incase of third divorce, she is free But I'm interested to know what if her husband passed away while still married? What is the ruling in this scenario?

I need help to clear some misconception in my head specially what I understand about marriage : I read some conflicting information on the subject tell me where I am wrong -islam didnt set a marriage age - a father can marry a non puber girl if it s good for her but generally you should avoid those marriage ( nawawwi and shafi'i) - you can consumate the marriage if the girl can do it with out any harm - it s his father who knows what s the best time to send his daughter when he feels she s ready , Imam malik said that source but here is what I am lost some people are saying -that the dad can only send the girl to his husband when she reach puberty (https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/49806/is-it-right-to-marry-a-young-girl/49810#49810 but this same person also stated that it s only a minoryty of ulama who are saying that because of surah 4 verse 6 ) but when I see the tafsir of 65:4 it s clearly talking about young girl who didnt menstruate but Allah have said in verse 65:1 and 65;6 the female have to stay in the husband house and it is mandatory during the iddah here is my question : **what about the young girl who didnt menstruate yet is this apply to her too?** my understanding is since she has to do his iddah in his father house where she already is( as Malik said ) any info of info of this particular iddah? the girl can do the iddah in the house of his father? I am have searched that on a lot of site and didnt find any ulama saying they is a iddah in the father s house . I know when the girl is married to a man but doesnt live with him yet it s called Sinn Az-Zawaj سن الزواج so is Allah is referring to the divorce of this kind of marriage in surah 65:4? if the girl didnt leave the house any way is it really a divorce? as you see I am confused .

What would be the period of Iddah for a women who took Khula after 4 years of separation from her husband in her 7 years of married life. Within these 7 years she lived 3 years with her husband and 4 years with her parents, as her husband and in-laws were causing mental harassment to her. She has a child and the husband after Khula, has clearly rejected to give maintenance for her and for the child.

If any girl is in "iddat"(iddah) and parents wants to see any person for her new marriage. Is it "Halal" to commit any girl with someone during "iddat", although marriage will be done after completion of iddat. Kindly guide me. Thanks.

In a case where a man has issued 2 divorces with the same woman in the first marriage and then they got together in a new relationship 1 year later, will the 2 divorces from the previous marriage still count in the new marraige even though if you had made a new proposal and marriage contract?

Can a woman demand maintenance from her husband if she was divorced after the consummation of the marriage? What is the view of the majority of the scholars regarding this?

In case that Khul'a الخلع happened and the wife and husband have legally been separated, but want to get back together. I assume that there's no turning back (reconciliation) within the 'Iddah as it would be the case for talaq. Nevertheless on this topic there are two different views one setting khul'a "equal to talaq" (divorce) and another setting it "equal to faskh" (invalidation) as I've learnt from https://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/35273/what-is-the-period-of-iddah-after-khula . So there might be at least two different opinions one whether or not a reconciliation is not permissible. I'd like to have an answer addressing the possibly different fiqh views on this: - Is it allowed to reconcile during the 'Iddah? - If not is it allowed to re-marry during the 'Iddah or must they wait?

A lady is living without her husband from last 7 months, as her husband is working abroad and she is living at her patents' home. Her husband has divorced her now. My question is regarding iddat (period of waiting). Does she need to perform iddat or not? Even though she didn't see her husband for 7 months.