this is something that has been bothering me for a while and I was hoping someone could answer or educate me on this topic. when a woman's husband dies she must wait 4 months and a couple of days before getting married. I understand that this rule is put out in case the woman is pregnant. However, the woman is not allowed to wear jewelry, perfume or anything that may beautify her in order to show respect to her husband who has passed away. she cannot go out with friends to feel better and can only leave the house for necessity. I don't think this is necessarily bad but what bothers me is that when a mans wife dies, he does not have to show any respect or mourn his wife's passing away. in fact he can marry someone else a day after her passing away. isn't there some kind of respect shown for a wife who's passed? why is a wife worth so much less than a husband? it's starting to seem like a wife is required to love and respect her husband more than he is required to love and respect her.

Shias (mostly in South-Asian countries) make replicas of taboot (biet), zari, zuljana and a'lam (Islamic flag) during Muharram processions. From where has this practice started and is it allowed in the light of Quran and hadith? *Answers with reference from َQuran and Sunnah are required.*

Why do Shi'a Muslims hit chests, slapping cheeks, hit shoulders with chains and, hit heads with swords and shed blood during Ashura? These reprehensible things forbidden by the Prophet (peace be upon him) as he did not tell his followers to make something of it or close to it, for the death of a great, or loss of a Shahid, whatever the amount and status. > عَنْ أَبِي هُرَيْرَةَ، قَالَ قَالَ رَسُولُ اللَّهِ صلى الله عليه > وسلم:‏"‏ اثْنَتَانِ فِي النَّاسِ هُمَا بِهِمْ كُفْرٌ الطَّعْنُ فِي > النَّسَبِ وَالنِّيَاحَةُ عَلَى الْمَيِّتِ " > > It is narrated on the authority of Abu Huraira that the Messenger of > Allah (may peace and blessings be upon him) observed: Two (things) are > found among men which are tantamount to unbelief: slandering one's > lineage and lamentation on the dead > > \[this hadith in Sahih Muslim ] And there is many of evidence that prevent such acts... *So my questions:* Why they do it? What reasoning and argument do they use to support their practice?

If I am a Shia girl married to a Sunni boy who doesn't want me to do matam (mourning) only, should I follow my husband or perform the matam no matter what?

How do Shias justify their Mourning (Matam) over Battle Of Karbala? We know that maximum mourning period of someone's death is 4 months 10 days (that too for a widow) but they do it every year. Please answer affirming to the fact that Battle of Karbala happened 40 years after Prophet Muhammad's (peace be upon him) death and it has nothing to do with him. *Related question:* How does the Shia school of belief justify Matam (Self-flagellation) and Tatbir (Striking oneself with sword)?

I came across to [this video](http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=euO_pTHQKl4) . Imam and people around him are flogging themselves. Why? What does this mean in Islam? any hadith or Quran to back this up? PS: I am not being funny or insulting anyone.