I work as a freelancer, and have been selected as a candidate for the Advance Cash Program by the freelancing site due to my exceptional track record. Here is there terms:

[Company name] Cash Advance Program lets freelancers sell a portion of their future revenue in exchange for a one-time payment. [Company name] takes 40% of the revenue until they receive the total future revenue amount. The funding amount paid to the freelancer is considered a purchase and sale of future revenue, not a loan. The freelancer represents that they have the authority to enter into the agreement and that the information provided is true and accurate. The freelancer agrees to comply with all applicable laws and regulations.

For example, if they pay me $1.5K now, they'll be deducting $1.76K from my earnings, on a rate of 40% on every client. I was only able to find one answer on a fatwa website: https://islamqa.org/hanafi/askimam/102637/business-merchant-cash-advances-for-future-receivables-are-not-permissible/ Their the Mufti likened it to a Bai Al-Dayn transaction, and deemed it haram. But I wasn't able to find it on any other fatwa site. I just want to double check this before I decide not to take this "loan".

i took a nap and wook up and had some desire i tried to get out of my head but it stayed for a while then i went to use the bathroom and forced some pee out and i think i saw some sticky liquid come out (not 100 percent sure) i checked again and couldn’t find anything and left the bathroom and found a wet spot which disapeered after 15 minutes i’m unsure wether i released madhiy or maniy or if i didn’t release anything at all is my fast void or should i continue my fast?

An online video was talking about the virtue of charity, adding that for Allah what matters is not quantity but sincerity, and the percentage one gave away from he owns. And told the story of a sahaba who worked the whole day just to earn a few dates, and gave as charity during Tabuk Expedition. And some mocked him. But the Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said that Allah accepted the charity (in the sense that, as I understand, Allah liked it more than others' charity because the man gave almost everything he had). The speaker also added that this incident is, perhaps indirectly, mentioned in an ayah. Is there a reliable hadith with respect to this incident?

Assalam o alaikum, I got to know from Zaid Patel lecture on ' Tijarat ke islami osool ' video no. 20 and also from Shiekh Abu Umar Abdulaziz lecture on ' fiqh of running bussiness...' video no. 16 that in Beassalam(manufacturing) practice debt from both sides(seller as well as buyer) is haraam. Does this applies for trading and service also? Video links=https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=YSuQfOQa4tc&list=PLjc7oSoRGqpFc2O0LN7eoP00fRdVEZ03V&index=20 https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=L5YPGooCM7g&list=PLBy4GHLUPhqW-N8y9Brb1C5YNziP-ynXt&index=16

Salaam, I’ve read that black hair dye is forbidden in Islam- those who do will not even smell the scent of paradise however i read that black mixed with another colour is fine, so does navy (a dark blue that looks black) suffice?

The Prophet Muhammad (SAWS) said to a person who had white hair: > “Change this white hair but avoid black.” Saheeh Muslim (5476 The Prophet also said: > “There will be people at the end of time who will dye their hair black like the crops of pigeons; they will not even smell the fragrance of Paradise.” Narrated by Abu Dawood (4212) and al-Nasaa’i (8/138); classed as saheeh by al-Albaani in Saheeh al-Jaami’ (8153). These hadith indicates that dying your hair black is haram but what is the reason that it is haram? Why did the Prophet forbid it?

I wanted to know which colours can you dye your hair with? I know you have to avoid black but are all the colors except black allowed or just a few like natural hair Colors?

I would like to extend this question (unanswered) I read here that, > “The Jews and the Christians do not dye their hair, so be different > from them.” (Narrated by al-Bukhaari, 3275; Muslim, 2103). > > إِنَّ الْيَهُودَ وَالنَّصَارَى لاَ يَصْبُغُونَ، فَخَالِفُوهُمْ So is keeping grey/white hair not permissible in Islam ? I couldn't find any more references.

From https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/16162/17163 , we see that there's a bunch of ahadith which prohibit dying one's hair black. For example: >"Some people will dye their hair black like the breasts of pigeons at the end of time, but they will not even smell the fragrance of Paradise."
>Sunan an-Nasa'i 5075 [grade: sahih] However, many people have naturally occurring black hair, which raises the question: **Question**: How do we reconcile ahadith which imply dying one's hair black is haram, given that black hair occurs naturally? Logically, we can infer there are two requirements to this problem: 1. the color black, since dying one's hair other colors was not considered a problem, and 2. the act of dying (not simply possessing black hair), since non-dyed black hair is fine. ---- Other questions on this topic are 1. https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/7222/17163 2. https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/14572/17163 3. https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/38497/17163 4. https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/39091/17163 5. https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/44068/17163 6. https://islam.stackexchange.com/q/44178/17163

We are allowed to dye the grey/white beard / head hairs except with black as this is deceiving making you look younger than you are. However if your natural hair colour is not black but brown, then isn't dyeing your hair with brown also deceiving? Rather in this case, black would be more appropriate? See https://islamqa.info/en/476

Why has black hair dye been singled out? I find it confusing because I read in a fatwa that people should not dye their gray hair black to deceive people. That is really confusing because it is possible for a blonde person to deceive others by dyeing his/her gray hair blonde, it is possible for a brunette to deceive people by dyeing his/her gray hair brunette, and it is possible for a black haired person to deceive people by dyeing his/her gray hair black, blonde, brunette, blue, yellow, red etc etc. So my question is, why has black been singled out as the only dye not to be used? Before people start saying that you shouldn't use any dye to deceive people of your age, yes I understand that, but that doesn't explain why black has been singled out. And before people ask, no I don't have black hair. Here are a few fatwas about black hair dye:
http://islamqa.info/en/ref/82103
http://islamqa.info/en/ref/83639
I can post many many many more links, but I will leave it at 2 for now. And here is a fatwa extract which includes a hadith: > Secondly: **changing grey hair by dyeing it black is haraam**. This is the > opinion of the majority of scholars, who forbid it completely, because > of the hadeeth of the Messenger (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon > him), when he saw Abu Quhaafah. Jaabir said: the Messenger of Allaah > (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him_ said, when he saw his head > looking as white as the thaghaamah plant, “Change this…” (Narrated by > Muslim, 2102). > > And the Prophet (peace and blessings of Allaah be upon him) said: > There are **people who dye their hair black** like the crops of pigeons; > they **will never smell the fragrance of Paradise**.” (Narrated by Abu > Dawood, 4212; al-Nasaa’i, 5075). Source of extract: http://islamqa.info/en/ref/7227

Are we allowed to dye our hair in Islam? These two hadiths contradict each other >Dawud :: Book 34 : Hadith 4210 > >Narrated Abdullah ibn Mas'ud: > >The Prophet of Allah (peace_be_upon_him) **disliked ten things**: Yellow colouring, meaning khaluq, **dyeing grey hair**, trailing the lower garment, wearing a gold signet-ring, a woman decking herself before people who are not within the prohibited degrees, throwing dice, using spells except with the Mu'awwidhatan, wearing amulets, withdrawing the penis before the semen is discharged, in the case of a woman who is wife or not a wife, and having intercourse with a woman who is suckling a child; but he did not declare them to be prohibited. **This one says prophet did not like dyeing hair.** >Bukhari :: Book 7 :: Volume 72 :: Hadith 786 > >Narrated Abu Huraira : > >The Prophet said, "Jews and Christians do not dye their hair so you should do the opposite of what they do. **This one tells us to dye our hair**. Also if dyeing is possible then what colours are allowed?

I have some grey hair. Is it permissible to dye my hair with black henna? Someone said black henna is permissible, because it doesn't include ammonia (godrej).

I have been told that sawab is a unit of "naiki". It will be something that will be counted or weighed on the Judgement Day. Is this concept supported by Quran and hadith? Specifically, as a unit of measuring good deeds. If not, what is the concept of "sawab" according to Quran and hadith? Based on my search in quran , it is used in meaning of "reward" or "recompense", which can be both good or bad

Nowadays we have three prevalent forms of government in Islamic Ummah: 1. Kingdom 2. Democracy 3. Shia's Wilayatul Faqeeh My questions is, what type of government is suggested by Islam? Is there an outline of what it should be? *Please provide your answer with proofs from Qur'an and Ahadith. I am looking in particular for a Shi'ite view.*

Allah (SWT) in some places in the Quran uses فعل and in other places uses عمل. - 2:68 - فافعلوا ما تومرون - 41:40 - اعملوا ما شئتم Is there a difference between them linguistically or semantically that can give us more insight into the commands of Allah? I once read somewhere in a tafseer, that فعل is like hearing and seeing (passive), عمل is like listening and watching (active). I can't find it though.

I want to marry a boy whom i love but i don't have any chance to go out and marry him officially or marry him through other marriage formalities... Like, we both have high sexual urges and we want to fulfill it at a halal way without any third witness... Will our marriage be acceptable if we tell ourselves that we are husband and wife by promising to Allah, and also the groom will gift paid money as delmohor? if its not then please tell me a way out

Why quran chose the name or as some scholar suggested (arabized) the name of Jesus so strange that has puzzled the scholars of both experts of language and scholars of comparative study for centuries which lead scholars to propose different theories. It also led Christians to believe that Quran distorted the name and person both. In Semitic languages hebrew and aramaic his name has been recorded as yeshu' and in eastern syriac it's isho' but all have ayn at the end. The Arabic speaking Christians also just transilerated the hebrew yashu' as yasu'. But quran shifted the ayn and inverted the name. I'm asking because this is very odd because the name of every prophet from semitic languages have been arabized normally and maintained the original words and composition but it only occurred in case of Jesus. The gospel of Matthew and Luke said that angel said Mary that he will be called as Iesous which is greek of yesu' and quran said he will be called 'Isa. Is there any evidence to support that his name in his mother language was yeshu' or isho'? Is 'Isa a different name just like john the baptist is called yahya? And if 'Isa is arabized form then quran was supposed to retain the original words and their composition as every Semitic language have same alphabets but quran changing the name is very strange because I think that every name has etymology which carry significant meaning and when quran changed the name the meaning of the name was lost because Semitic languages are same just dialect and pronunciation differences?

I often recall my memory from the past when I was first recognised God. When I was a child and misbehaving and my mother said "Remember God is watching you" and reply "Who's he(God)"?. That memory casts me doubts regarding whether it's true that everyone is born with instinct to believe in God. I often think that is it possible that it's not true for everyone and often think that could it be the case that some believe in God not because it was in their instinct but that is what they were told since their childhood?

I'm working on Quran (using Quran's database ) and I've noticed that from like 17000 distinct words of Quran, around 3000 start with wa attached to the beginning of the word. Examples: وَیَتَفَکَّرُونَ وَیَهْدِی وَتَنَازَعْتُمْ وَقَصْرٍ وَکَانُوا وَالْمُؤْتُونَ وَالْجِبَالَ وَانْشَقَّتِ وَأَقْوَمَ وَجَاهِدْهُمْ وَجَعَلَ وَتَظُنُّونَ وَجَدْتُمُوهُمْ وَوَعَدْتُکُمْ وَاعْبُدُوهُ وَأَجَلٌ وَکَیْفَ وَسَعَیٰ وَنَهَرٍ وَیُونُسَ This means that based on what I've found online in Quran's scripture, near 17% of words have wa attached to them at the beginning. This makes lingual analysis of Quran really really hard. Why is it so? Is it a simple typing mistake, or is it a known Arabic or Quranic rule? Is it safe if I remove them from those words?