Why does the (N)KJV put Jesus' name in all caps in Matthew 1:21 and Luke 1:31?
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It's only in the King James and the New King James, but why is Jesus' name in all caps?
> And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS:
> for he shall save his people from their sins.**Matthew 1:21**
>
> And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son,
> and shalt call his name JESUS. **Luke 1:31**
It isn't like this anywhere else in the Bible. The word in the Greek is the same as in other instances of the name. Why? And why only in the KJV?
Asked by dleyva3
(3428 rep)
Aug 27, 2011, 01:34 AM
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Last activity: Nov 15, 2024, 05:15 PM