My question is specifically relevant to a study I am conducting to determine if it was plausibly possible that Luke had contact with Mary while in Paul's company. I know that Mary's death is not attested anywhere in scripture. The closest information we actually have is from Epiphanius, and later Hippolytus of Thebes, though likely derivative of Epiphanius, who both claim that she allegedly lived eleven years after the crucifixion (Epiph. *Pan*. 78.11; Hipp. Theb., *Chron*. *fr*. 48 (*PG* 117, 1029)). Given the average betrothal age of twelve or thirteen years old for a young woman in first century Judaea, if Jesus was born in 3 BCE relative to Luke's deduction from the fifteenth year of Tiberius, then he was born when she was either thirteen or fourteen years old. When you calculate that forward to 34 CE (which is the year I have personally determined for the crucifixion, though that is an entirety different discussion), eleven years later would put her death around 45 CE at approximately the age of sixty. Demographically, this is perfectly normal. While average life expectancy at birth in the Roman world was low, this is largely due to infant and child mortality; those who survived into adulthood frequently lived into their sixties or beyond. Thus, Mary’s surviving to her early sixties accords well with demographic realities, making the patristic calculation historically plausible (Bruce M. Metzger, The New Testament: Its Background, Growth, and Content, 3rd ed. (Nashville: Abingdon, 2003), 25; Keith Hopkins, Death and Renewal: Sociological Studies in Roman History, Volume 2 (Cambridge: Cambridge University Press, 1983), 225–27). However, for Luke to have had contact with her, either he was in Paul's company much earlier than Troas, which is where most scholars put it, or Mary lived longer than the tradition given by Epiphanius. The latter is not out of the question. A lot of his information is highly questionable. So, I'm trying, as best as I'm able, to deduce a competent approximation of the time of her death to either confirm or deny the plausibility of her having contact with Luke. The relevance of this contact has to do with the intimacy of knowledge Luke has concerning his infancy narrative. He is privy to details that could only have come from someone who knew them. Things like the offset of Mary's and Elisabeth's pregnancies, or that Mary stayed with Elisabeth for three months, are not details that could have been acquired from the public records. I did read somewhere some time ago a passage that I recollect was in a patristic writing, though it's possible it was in one of the New Testament epistles. The scene mentions young women who wanted to meet with and talk with Mary about private, secret, or mysterious things. The implication is that they wanted to discuss her virginity or similar. As best as I can recall, this passage, wherever it is, provides a minor temporal time-stamp that gives a clue to the longevity of Mary's life. I know I read it. It's not my imagination. But I have tried searching for it in every way I can think to word it. I can't find it anywhere. Anyone who knows the source of what I'm looking for, I would be greatly obliged if you would share. Outside of that, any solid arguments on the time of Mary's death would be great. I don't care if it supports or undermines my thoughts concerning Luke's contact with her. I just want a factual conclusion, as best as can be had within the bounds of credible evidence.

I'm interested in exploring a theological understanding of work from a Reformed perspective. Most of the literature I find tends to be sociological, especially Weberian, but I'm specifically looking for theological treatments grounded in the Reformed tradition. Ideally, I’d like recommendations that are not politically driven or overtly proselytizing, but instead focus on biblical and theological foundations for work, vocation, and labor in Reformed thought. What are some good books or authors to start with?

I read some articles on the most recent medieval find of a document stating the Shroud of Turin is a forgery. I could not find any indication of what was so obvious to Pope Clement the VII and to Nicole Oresme. Did they name the forger or the technique used to produce the Shroud? I assume it must have been obvious to both of them. I also read that someone confessed they created the forgery but I see no names. Here is a link: [700-Year-Old Medieval Document Is the Oldest Written Evidence to Claim the Shroud of Turin Is Fake](https://www.discovermagazine.com/a-700-year-old-medieval-document-is-the-oldest-written-evidence-to-claim-the-shroud-of-turin-is-fake-47982) . Perhaps a separate question but of equal interest to me and I may post as another question were the samples used on the Carbon 14 dating from a repaired area with some fibers being medieval origin? I read this has been refuted but am not sure of the source. I also read about a husband and wife team ( Bedford and Merino? ) in Columbus who found the fibers were repaired and this was substantiated by someone on the STURP Team who had a left over sample in his lab. He subsequently passed away. I may have stepped over out of bounds asking two questions in one note.

In the Gospels, Jesus is led into the wilderness to be tempted by Satan (Matthew 4:1–11, Luke 4:1–13). As the Son of God, He would have known in advance both that Satan was coming and the kinds of temptations he would present. For Christians, however, temptations often come suddenly and without forewarning. We usually don’t know in advance what form they will take. My question is: Does Jesus’ foreknowledge of the devil’s tactics set His experience of temptation apart from the temptations Christians face, or should it be understood as fundamentally the same kind of testing?

I have come across this phrase "***A born-again Christian has a new nature that cannot sin***" (or other versions written differently but carrying the same implication). Here is one example from this site and here is another more fulsome treatment from an evangelical perspective. Does this mean a born-again Christian can not sin? If we can still sin, then what is the purpose of that nature if it can not shield us from sin? ***How would/does a nature like this make us different from Abraham, Noah, Job, David or Moses?***

How do those who understand Noah's Flood to be a global flood explain what the carnivorous animals ate after disembarking, if there were only 2 of all the other species left? Eating 1 would stop those species' reproductive lines, so what happened here?

This may come off as an odd request - but I’m looking for a catholic roadmap of salvation that gives an order to how one comes to salvation and maintain salvation through the sacraments. This request is in order to give a better explanation to my Protestant friends, especially in relation to baptism and faith. Thanks a bunch!

The Gospels record that at Jesus’ baptism, the Holy Spirit descended on Him like a dove (Matthew 3:16, Mark 1:10, Luke 3:22, John 1:32). Immediately afterward, we read that the Spirit led Him into the wilderness to be tempted (Matthew 4:1, Mark 1:12, Luke 4:1). Does this mean that the Holy Spirit entered or moved into Jesus only at His baptism, and then guided Him into the wilderness? Or should the descent of the Spirit be understood differently, since Luke 1:35 indicates that Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit and therefore already had a unique relationship with Him before baptism?

In the Bible God gives many commands, but he doesn't seem to have to keep all of them himself. For example in the Ten Commandments God instructs his people not to murder (Exodus 20:13). But God frequently executes people himself, such as when he killed Korah and his 250 followers in Numbers 16. Why doesn't God have to keep his own commandment not to kill? To disobey any of God's commandments is sinful. So how can God ignore them? Does the Bible explain why?

What are the historic and current views of the Catholic Church concerning Masons?

Many creationist have beliefs concerning the pre-flood environment on earth. Are Jehovah Witnesses adamant about the water canopy being the source of flood waters? Do JWs believe the restored earth will have a restored canopy?

Philippians 2:6 is "Ὃς ἐν μορφῇ Θεοῦ ὑπάρχων οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο τὸ εἶναι ἴσα Θεῷ" "Hos en morphe theou hyparchon ouch harpagmon hegesato to einai isa theo" In his talk Philippians 2: Jesus is not God , Dr. Tom Gaston says (~3 min. mark) > "Had Paul meant to say that Jesus was God, or was a god, he would have > had a very simple way of doing so. That's not a difficult thing to say > in Greek. So the fact that he doesn't use those words makes it very > unlikely that that's what he means." If St. Paul had wanted to say Jesus was God at Philippians 2:6 straightforwardly, he could have said so. Instead, he adds the word 'form', as in 'form of God'. Similarly, as Gaston continues > "Also, had Paul meant to be talking about Jesus' *nature* - saying > that Jesus had the nature of God - again, he would have used other > words. Look at this passage from Galatians 4:8, where Paul talks about > the nature of gods. [...] He uses the Greek word 'phusis' for > 'nature', and again, when you look at that verse for 2 Peter 1:4, it > talks about participating in the divine nature, and again the Greek > word used is 'phusis'. **So had Paul wanted to say Jesus had divine > nature, there are other words he could have used to say that. Instead, > what Paul says is that Jesus was in the form of God. The word he uses > is 'morphe', which is most commonly used in reference to *outward* > appearance, rather than essence or being** [as is done at Mark 16:12]." Why, according to Trinitarians who believe Philippians 2:6 is saying Jesus was God, did Paul add the word 'form' ('morphe')?

There is already a related question on intersex people here: [How are intersex people explained by Christianity?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/83572/117426) I’ve also come across some personal stories and documentaries on YouTube: * [“I Was Born With Male and Female Parts” | Listen Up | ABC Science](https://youtu.be/4fP8WZXplR4) * [“I Learned I Was Intersex At 21” | Listen Up | ABC Science](https://youtu.be/vcSCW51PSIs) * [Born Intersex: Defying The Binary (Medical Documentary) | Real Stories](https://youtu.be/QVHq8wb19jo) This made me wonder: has there ever been a documented case, in the records of any Christian organization, of an intersex individual being healed of their intersex condition by God? --- --- "Intersex" is the colloquial term used to refer to what medically is known as [*disorders of sex development*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development) (DSD): > **Disorders of sex development** (**DSDs**), also known as **differences in sex development**, **variations in sex > characteristics** (**VSC**),[^(\[2\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-NHS-2)[^(\[3\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-3) **sexual > anomalies**, or **sexual abnormalities**, are [congenital > conditions](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Congenital_disorder) affecting > the [reproductive > system](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_reproductive_system) , in > which development > of [chromosomal](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chromosome), [gonadal](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gonad) , > or [anatomical sex](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anatomical_sex) is > atypical.[^(\[4\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-lee-4)[^(\[5\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-5) > > DSDs are subdivided into groups in which the labels generally > emphasize the [karyotype](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Karyotype) 's > role in diagnosis: 46,XX; 46,XY; sex chromosome; XX, sex reversal; > ovotesticular disorder; and XY, sex > reversal.[^(\[6\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-6) > > Infants born with atypical genitalia often cause confusion and > distress for the family. [Psychosexual > development](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psychosexual_development) is > influenced by numerous factors that include, but are not limited to, > gender differences in brain > structure, [genes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gene) associated with > sexual development, prenatal androgen exposure, interactions with > family, and cultural and societal > factors.[^(\[7\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-7) Because > of the complex and multifaceted factors involved, communication and > psychosexual support are all important. > > A team of experts, or patient support groups, are usually recommended > for cases related to sexual anomalies. This team of experts are > usually derived from a variety of disciplines > including [pediatricians](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pediatrics), [neonatologists](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Neonatology) , > pediatric [urologists](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Urologists) , > pediatric [general > surgeons](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/General_surgery), [endocrinologists](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Endocrinologist), [geneticists](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Geneticist), [radiologists](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Radiologists), [psychologists](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psychologist) and [social > workers](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Social_work).[^(\[8\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-:332-8)[^(\[9\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-9)[^(\[10\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-:432-10) These > professionals are capable of providing first line (prenatal) and > second line diagnostic (postnatal) tests to examine and diagnose > sexual anomalies. > > > #### Gonadal development disorders > > Gonadal development disorders form a wide spectrum, classified by > their [cytogenetic](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cytogenetics) and [histopathological](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Histopathology) features . > However, unsolved diagnosis > and [malignancy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malignancy) still > represent difficulties in the sex determination of these > patients.[^(\[37\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-37) Such > disorders include partial or complete gonadal > dysgenesis, [ovotesticular](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ovotesticular_disorder) DSD, [testicular](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Testicular) DSD > and [sex > reversal](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sex_reversal).[^(\[8\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-:332-8) > > #### Abnormal genital development > > Genital abnormality can occur in the penis, scrotum or testes in > males; and vagina and labia in > females.[^(\[8\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-:332-8) Sometimes , > ambiguous genitalia could occur, where the clear distinction of > external genitalia is absent in both male and female. Hence, > examination (typically at birth) is carried out where the sex of the > patient will be determined > through [imaging](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Imaging_biomarker) and [blood > tests](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Blood_test).[^(\[8\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-:332-8) Abnormal > genital development includes disorders of fetal origin, disorders in > androgen synthesis or action, disorders in [anti-Müllerian > hormone](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Anti-M%C3%BCllerian_hormone) synthesis > or > action.[^(\[8\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-:332-8) > > #### Others > > In addition to the aforementioned sexual anomalies, there are other > unclassified sexual anomalies. In males, this includes severe > early-onset [intrauterine growth > restriction](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intrauterine_growth_restriction) , > isolated [hypospadias](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypospadias), [congenital > hypogonadotropic > hypogonadism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Congenital_hypogonadotropic_hypogonadism), [hypogonadism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypogonadism) and [cryptorchidism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cryptorchidism) . > In females, this includes [Malformation > syndromes](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Malformation_syndrome), [Müllerian > agenesis](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/M%C3%BCllerian_agenesis)/[hypoplasia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hypoplasia), [uterine > anomalies](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uterine_malformation), [vaginal > atresia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vaginal_atresia) and [labial > adhesions](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Labial_adhesions).[^(\[8\])](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disorders_of_sex_development#cite_note-:332-8)

And who might have instigated and led the slaughter of Hypatia? Was there a sect of Catholic iconoclasts (irony?) that might be linked to the destruction of both Hypatia and the Library of Alexandra? Disclaimer: I'm not making any claims or accusations, just looking under rocks!

Doctrine and Covenants 42:18 appears to teach that anyone who kills cannot ever be forgiven. Does "killing" refer only to murder or to any killing, be it in self defense or as part of a way? > And now, behold, I speak unto the church. Thou shalt not kill; and he that kills shall not have forgiveness in this world, nor in the world to come. D&C 42:18 Does the LDS Church hold to this position today? If so, how is God's forgiveness of David reconciled with that as well as the people mentioned in the book of Alma? > Nathan said to David, “You are the man... You have struck down Uriah the Hittite with the sword and have taken his wife to be your wife and have killed him with the sword of the Ammonites... David said to Nathan, “I have sinned against the LORD.” And Nathan said to David, “**The LORD also has put away your sin**; you shall not die. 2 Samuel 12 (portions) ESV > > And I also thank my God, yea, my great God, that he hath granted unto us that we might repent of these things, and also that **he hath forgiven us of those our many sins and murders which we have committed**, and taken away the guilt from our hearts, through the merits of his Son. Alma 24:10

A promise God made with Abram in Genesis 12:3 is being circulated around these days. "I will bless those who bless you etc." I understand that New Testament covenant replaces the Covenant between God and the Jews made with ***Moses***. (Hebrews 8:8-13) But to what extent? Part of it, or all of it? How has the New Testament covenant been understood to affect covenants made with ***Abraham***? (Not just concerning the land.) And how does the New Covenant, in the same manner, affect the other Old Testament covenants, like ***Noah's, Ishmael's, etc***.

What it says on the cover. I'm interested in: - monasteries that are self-styled Protestant or belong to denominations generally recognized as Protestant - not ecumenical such as Taize - specifically celibate (preferably gender-separate), not merely closed or intentional communities - if there are any examples in hierarchical denominations, I'm interested in to what degree such monasteries are acknowledged or approved by church leadership.

Do we have a good idea as to which Pharaoh(s) were around during the time of Moses' life? What internal and external evidence exists to back up those claims? Do any Christian traditions attach any significance to correlating the events of Moses' life to the reign of a specific Pharaoh? The movie *The Prince of Egypt * mentions Ramses as the name of Moses' adoptive mother's son (and the future Pharaoh, both when Moses kills the Egyptian at 40 and when he returns to Egypt when he is 80), but I don't know what the basis is for this claim.

I've always believed that Jesus was stabbed in his left side. That seems to be the common belief. How is that notion supported? I can't find anything the tells me absolutely in which side he was stabbed, so if there is anyone who says it was the right side, how is that supported?

There seems to be an idea among some Christians of a metaphysical timeline that goes something like this: 1. All the angels are created sometime before or during the 7 days of creation in Genesis. 2. Satan desires to become like God, and starts a "war in heaven" 3. Satan loses the war and is cast out of Heaven along with many other angels before or during the time Adam and Eve reside in Eden. 4. Satan, fallen and cast out of Heaven, appears in Eden in the form of a serpent to tempt Eve, and Adam. 5. Satan continues to tempt, torment, and accuse mankind, as evident in Job. 6. Satan is bound for a time when the Messiah comes into power. 7. Satan is released from bondage and wages a final war upon Heaven with his fallen angels and many nations who follow him. 8. Satan is defeated and cast into the lake of fire, which is eternal destruction. Was there a war in Heaven for which Satan was cast out that occurred _before_ the fall of man? What Biblical sources can be cited that describe the events that led to the exile of Satan from Heaven?