So how do they know the angel of the Lord is Michael? How do they reconcile this since Michael in the Bible at Daniel 10:13 is described as "one of the chief princes?"

According to fundamental Belief 24: (Christ’s ministry in the Heavenly Sanctuary) the SDA believe that Christ began his investigative judgement in 1844.This they refer to as the end of 2300 days of Daniel's prophecy. Daniel 8:14 NASB >14 And he said to me, “For 2,300 evenings and mornings; then the sanctuary will be [q]properly restored.” In the prophecy Daniel refers to the restoration of the sanctuary which the SDA clear identify as the heavenly sanctuary.But its not clear in Daniel's prophecy which one he was referring to.Should the text be understood from a literal or non literal sense. How can one understand this interpretation of Christ ministry in the heavenly sanctuary?

Jesus tied some of the end time events to what Daniel prophesied. One of them is the abomination that causes desolation and the other one is what an angel told Daniel directly, that **knowledge shall incRease** (a prophecy that has been fulfilled in recent times) and **many shall move to and fro** (transport using airplanes from one corner of the globe to the other). Since these two have been fulfilled then the abomination that is yet to cause desolation is yet to appear but some Christians seem to believe that Jesus already appeared to the 1st century AD church, why? >"So when you see standing in the holy place the abomination that causes desolation..." (Mathew 24:15) The event above has not yet happened but the other two prophecies of Daniel happened.

Daniel Chap 8 always confused me. The last (4th) Beast was detailed in Chap 7 and the former 3rd beast detailed in Chap 8. Both detailed beasts had a little horn coming up later but from different scenarios of previous horns. However Chap 8 explains the 3rd Empire (Chap 7 Leopard) instead as a Goat and in more detail. It's little horn rises out of 4 horns (Generals) taking over (per history) Alexander the Great's empire (at his death). But this little horn isn't said to subdue any previous horns but rather it waxed exceeding great to the south, east, and pleasant land. If one examines history the first sections of Chap 8 seems to be about the Seleucid Empire's Antiochus Epiphanes IV. But the latter part of Chap 8 also seems to go beyond Seleucid's Epiphanes IV and details more in line with the timeline and happenstance of the 4th (final) beast of Chap 7(?). Other than this said implicit latter section expansion Chap 8 does not specifically mention the 4th beast empire included Daniel Chap 7. The Seleucid Empire encompassed a good fraction of the same area as the Eastern Roman (4th beast) Empire. But it's confusing to see the little horn out of the 4 horns go on in the latter section of Chap 8 to sound synonymous with the little horn of the Chap 7's 4th beast which subdued 3 of it's previous 10 horns. Unless Chap 8 is not referring to the 4th beast at all (timeline or premise) and verse 11 is referencing Israel of Christ's earthly time. And verse 23's latter time is referencing the same? I.e. making Chap 7 more about the end of the times of the Gentiles and Chap 8 more about the cutting off of the messiah and Israel being scattered until the last days?

Deuteronomy 33:26 is > "There is none like the God of Jeshurun, who rides the heavens to your > aid, and the clouds in His majesty." Biblical Unitarians take Daniel 7:13 to be a Messianic prophecy, and it has > "I saw One like the Son of Man coming with the clouds of heaven. He > approached the Ancient of Days and was led into His presence." If the Son of Man = God, then the fact the Son of Man in coming with the clouds of heaven is easy to reconcile with Deut. 33:26, where it seems to describe an exclusive activity of God - riding the clouds. How do Biblical Unitarians, who believe the Son of Man is a divine figure in a sense, but not God, reconcile these two verses?

Susanna 1:32 states that part of her piety was covering her face, and that the elders wanted to uncover her. Why is she not depicted that way in Iconography? (At least in the iconography I can find)

Daniel 8:11 > It became great, even as great as **the Prince of the host**. And the > regular burnt offering was taken away from him, and the place of his > sanctuary was overthrown. Daniel 8:25 > By his cunning he shall make deceit prosper under his hand, and in his > own mind he shall become great. Without warning he shall destroy many. > And he shall even rise up against **the Prince of princes**, and he shall > be broken—but by no human hand. Daniel 9:25 > Know therefore and understand that from the going out of the word to > restore and build Jerusalem to the coming of **the Messiah, the Prince,** > there shall be seven weeks. Then for sixty-two weeks it shall be built > again with squares and moat, but in a troubled time. Daniel 10:13 > The prince of the kingdom of Persia withstood me twenty-one days, > **but Michael, foremost of the chief princes**, came to help me, for I was left there with the kings of Persia, Daniel 10:21 > "But I will tell you what is inscribed in the book of truth: there is > none who contends by my side against these **except Michael, your > Prince.**" Daniel 12:1 > “At that time **shall arise Michael, the great Prince who has charge of > your people**. And there shall be a time of trouble, such as never has > been since there was a nation till that time. But at that time your > people shall be delivered, everyone whose name shall be found written > in the book." From these six key passages, we learn that the Messiah is the Prince, and that Michael is our Prince. How can this be, and does this imply that we have two princes, or that the Messiah is the incarnation of Michael?

Reading from the book of Daniel Chapter 11, there is a man mentioned near the end of the chapter that most agree is the anti-christ. Daniel describes his eventual end as him being pressed by several kings and eventually his army abandons him: > Daniel 11 > > 44 However, news from the east and north will frighten him, so that he moves out in great fury to ruin and completely do away with many. 45 Finally, when he pitches the tents of his palace between the seas and the mountain of the holy Glory, he will come to his end, with no one to help him. However the book of Revelation describes the end of the anti-christ as a battle between his armies and Heavens armies: > Revelation 19:19 > > I saw the beast and the kings of the earth and their armies gathered together to do battle with the rider of the horse and his army. Is the book of Daniel suggesting that the Antichrist is basically a "weak" version of himself by the time Jesus arrives, and it's the other kings of the earth that are primarily waging war against Jesus? If that is true what can we make of Revelation 13 that says: > The whole world was filled with wonder and followed the beast. Daniel mentions the other kings eating at a table with the anti-christ, would they not have his number/mark on them during this time? > Daniel 11 > > 27 These two kings, bent on mischief, will sit at the same table, speaking lies to each other; but none of this will succeed; because the appointed end will not have come yet. 28 Then the king of the north will return to his own land with great wealth; with his heart set against the holy covenant, he will take action and then return home.

In the book of Daniel chapter 10 , Daniel is in a period of mourning because a great war is coming. He fasts for 21 days and then sees a vision of what I presume to be an angel. Before the angel explains what will happen to Daniel's people, the angel explains why he is "late" in meeting him: > 12 Then he said to me, "Do not be afraid, Daniel, for from the first day that you set your heart on understanding this and on humbling yourself before your God, your words were heard, and I have come in response to your words. > > 13 "But the prince of the kingdom of Persia was withstanding me for twenty-one days; then behold, Michael, one of the chief princes, came to help me, for I had been left there with the kings of Persia. > > —Daniel 10:12–13 , NIV It seems very unusual to me that an angel would be delayed for three weeks by any force, and that Michael (the archangel?) had to come to help free him from the "kings of Persia" (demons?). I suppose I've always had the image that an angel could just poof to a place instantaneously, as usually happens in popular media, so being stuck in a location for three weeks and needing a stronger angel to help seems really bizarre to me and doesn't seem to match up with depictions of other angels of the Bible (e.g., the ones that appeared to Mary and Joseph). I'm really at a loss for how to explain this. What is an overview of the most common explanations for the angel being delayed here in Daniel?

Does anyone have any good resources on Astronomical dating of Biblical prophecy? I have been looking into how Daniel and John used Astronomical "signs" to date their prophecies and have made several interesting connections. But I need more information on how these prophets use the descriptions of their visions to relate with astronomical positions of the stars and planets.

The word meshiach just means anointed one. So what indication is there that Daniel 9 is about the Messiah? Further reading would be appreciated, thanks!

> And Darius the Mede received the kingdom, being about sixty-two years old. [Daniel 5:31] I have read much about the possible identities of Darius the Mede; to me, the most convincing alias is that of Gabaru (mentioned in Nabonidus Chronicle column iii line 20). However, there are a number of other theories, and it causes me to wonder: _Who exactly was Darius the Mede?_ I know we cant know for sure (?), but what would make the most sense, in light of our faith?

One of the early collections of Rabbinic Law and Doctrine is contained in the Babylon Talmudic. I presume it’s fairly safe to say that it is a good source to indicate what the Rabbis at the time of Christ may have been thinking. Of course Rabbinic thinking is considered irrelevant by Christians with respect to what is true when not in-line with scripture. However from the standpoint of understanding the context of the gospels it has some value. This makes the reference below, from it to Dan 12:2, describing the eternal blessing of the resurrected, as well as the eternal contempt of the wicked also resurrected, as opposed to an odd theory of a temporal punishment for some not that wicked and not that good. This third class seems to be an invention of them outside of the scripture but does make the conclusion of the ‘non-temporal’ nature of the wicked souls subjection to contempt iron clad. Are there any references or parables of Christ in the gospels that indicate a familiarity with the Rabbinic view of the dual resurrection of both the wicked and the righteous? Is there anything rejected or accepted in them by the Lord? Talmudic Tractate Rosh haShanah > It is taught in a baraita: Beit Shammai say: There will be three > groups of people on the great Day of Judgment at the end of days: One > of wholly righteous people, one of wholly wicked people, and one of > middling people. Wholly righteous people will immediately be written > and sealed for eternal life. Wholly wicked people will immediately be > written and sealed for Gehenna, as it is stated: “And many of those > who sleep in the dust of the earth shall wake, some to eternal life > and some to shame and everlasting contempt” (Daniel 12:2). Middling > people will descend to Gehenna to be cleansed and to achieve atonement > for their sins Daniel 12:2 ESV > 2 And many of those who sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to **everlasting life**, and some to shame and **everlasting contempt**

I’m interested in the Christian viewpoint on Daniel 2? Which kingdom is the fourth kingdom represented by the iron legs of the image? Do Christians believe this is the Romans? I am assuming, correct me if I am wrong, that Christians believe that the stone cut but not by hands which destroys the kingdom is the anointed king of Israel. Given that Rome has long been under the control of Christians does this mean that Christians believe that the Messiah will come to destroy Christianity in general or just Catholicism?

I was pleasantly surprised to see the popularity of Daniel's seventy weeks prophecy held by Christians across multiple denominations in an recent question about "the fulness of time". In it, one day in prophecy, is interpreted as one year, and predicts the year of Jesus' ministry and death. For those who hold this view, what is the basis for some to then interpret Daniel's 1260 day prophecy as days and not years? Would it not be more consistent to continue the interpretation that one prophetic day is equal to one calendar year, as per other Christian Historicist understandings? As background, **1260 days** is equal to **42 months** (42 x 30 days), and is equal to **a time, times and half a times** (360 + 360 x2 + 180 days) >"the women fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there **a thousand two hundred and three score days**." Rev 12:6 > >"And to the women were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness in to her place, where she is nourished for **a time, and times, and half a time**" Rev 12:14 > >"But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot **forty and two months**. And I will give power unto my two witnesses, and they shall prophesy **a thousand two hundred and threescore days**, clothed in sackcloth." Rev 11:2-3 > >"And he shall speak great words against the most High, and shall wear out the saints of the most High, and think to change times and laws: and they shall be given into his hand until **a time and times and the dividing of time**." Dan 7:25 > >"And there was given unto him a mouth speaking great things and blasphemies; and power was given unto him to continue **forty and two months**." Rev 13:5

Recently, I have spent some time trying to better understand the Messianic prophecy given in Dan. 9:24-27, which begins with ``Seventy weeks are decreed .... It seems that many English translations begin 9:24 as such, albeit the Hebrew "shavuim", which I understand is given in the Hebrew test, means *sevens*. Based on what Daniel was thinking about when the angel Gabriel appeared to him, it is clear enough that the prophecy pertains to seventy sevens (or 490) years, the last seven of which still seems to be in the future. However, it has been interpreted that the Messiah must have come (before the completion of the first sixty-nine sevens of years) AND must have been "cut off" AFTER the completion of those years. Furthermore, the beginning of those seventy sevens of years must have occurred ``from the utterance of the word that Jerusalem was to be rebuilt ..." Now, chronology from that time is not a clear as we would like to have it, but it does seem to be the case that there are four possibilities for the decree that the prophecy refers to; and in particular, when the countdown of seventy sevens began---The very latest being the decree of Artaxerxes to Nehemiah to rebuild the walls around Jerusalem in 444 B.C. Thus, at the very latest, the countdown of the seventy sevens of years began no later than this date. Now, **WHAT LENGTH OF A YEAR IS LIKELY BEING ALLUDED TO?** If we take the year to be a solar year, then -444 + 483 = 39; and so, simply speaking, the Messiah must have been cut off (killed) around 39 A.D., or later---which seems to be too late. And if we use the dates of the other three possibilities (that I am not listing here)---the Messiah would then have had to have been born much too early, since according to Daniel's prophecy, He had to have been on earth before the expiration of the sixty-nine sevens. This, in some cases, would have placed His birth in near the second century B.C. QUESTION: Hence, with the thought that the Jewish calendar neither is, nor was, a solar calendar---is it possible that the elapse of 483 years prior to the Messiah being cut off refers to "years" on the order of 360 days? I ask, because roughly speaking, this would have the Messiah being cut off in or after the early 30s A.D. which agrees more closely with current calculations as to the year in which Jesus Christ was crucified. Can someone add light to (or correct) these thoughts on calculating a lower bound for when "the Anointed One" had to have been cut off according to Daniel's prophecy? Thank you.

In his *Dignity and Duties of the Priest, or Selva*, St. Alphonsus Liguori writes: > Hence the devil has always sought to deprive the world of the Mass by means of the heretics, constituting them precursors of Antichrist, whose first efforts shall be to abolish the holy sacrifice of the altar, and, according to the prophet Daniel, in punishment of the sins of men, his efforts shall be successful: *And strength was given him against the continual sacrifice because of sins. (Dan. viii. 20.)* I recall having read somewhere a while back, that St. Robert Bellarmine interpreted the aforementioned verse in Daniel as meaning that (all) *public Masses* would be suspended for a time. Can anyone point me to where I may find this in St. Robert Bellarmine's writings, as well as to what else he may have had to say on Daniel 8:12?

While studying the book of Daniel I came across: >Daniel 6:10 Now when Daniel knew that the writing was signed, he went home. And in his upper room, with his windows open toward Jerusalem, he knelt down on his knees three times that day, and prayed and gave thanks before his God, as was his custom since early days. and since it is necessary that Muslims face mecca when praying I wondered if that was some ritual that all exiles followed or if it was only a custom of Daniel. I checked this question but it does not address my point, https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/35444/why-did-daniel-feel-the-need-to-pray-towards-jerusalem-even-at-the-cost-of-his Does anyone know the answer to my question or where I might find some guidance on this?

In the third chapter of Daniel, 3 Jewish men get thrown into a fiery furnace. The King who had them thrown in looks and sees a fourth person walking around with them in the fire. This fourth person is identified by the polytheistic King as looking *like unto a son of the gods*: > He answered and hath said, 'Lo, I am seeing four men loose, walking in the midst of the fire, and they have no hurt; and the appearance of the fourth is like to a son of the gods.' - Daniel 3:25 (YLT) The men who were thrown into the fire had previously claimed faith that God, if he so chose, could rescue them from the fire: > Lo, it is; our God whom we are serving, is able to deliver us from a > burning fiery furnace; and from thy hand, O king - Daniel 3:17 (YLT) It is likely that this confidence was built in part upon a direct promise from God issued in Isaiah 43: > And now, thus said Jehovah, Thy Creator, O Jacob, and thy Fashioner, O Israel, Be not afraid, for I have redeemed thee, I have called on thy name—thou art Mine. When thou passest into waters, I am with thee, And into floods, they do not overflow thee, When thou goest into fire, thou art not burnt, And a flame doth not burn against thee. - v. 1-2 The promise is that in the fire they are not burnt because "I am with thee". Jehovah uses a first person singular pronoun. Later in Isaiah 43 Jehovah makes it clear that He alone is Savior: > I—I am Jehovah, And besides Me there is no saviour. - v.11 I understand the notion of proxy, and that God could still be considered the only Savior even though sending a Savior who is not Himself, but the promise in Isaiah is that God Himself with be with them in water, flood, and fire. Whom do Biblical Unitarians say is seen by Nebuchadnezzar in the fiery furnace with the three Jews?

Exodus 25:10 says: > 10 “Have them make an ark[b] of acacia wood—two and a half cubits long, a cubit and a half wide, and a cubit and a half high. **My question is**: Given that - 2.5 + 1.5 + 1.5 = 5.5 cubits, which is half the measure of 5, 3 and 3 (which are equal to 11 when added), and - 11 being a Triangular number that is equal to 66, and the sum of the Ark that is 66 also, what is the important significance of 66 other than its being found in the middle of 62 and 70 in Daniel 9? The only explanation I can come up with is that the five book of Moses, which has 187 chapters in total, are the knowledge and the wisdom of the hand of G-D and the Holy fire or the burning bush, and any women can't approach the Holy Ark or be in the temple where the Ark is present other than a person who is selected by the Creator. Hebrew alphabets have 22 letters, which is 11×2 and the triangular number is 23 × 11 = 253. 23 × 11 - 6 × 11 = 187. 5     9     13 17    21    25 29    33    37 41    45    49 53    57    61    17+45=62   21+45=66    25+45=70   41+21=62   45+21=66    49+21=70 62+66+70=198      66+66+66=198 62+70=132   66÷11=6 66÷11=6  66÷11=6 132÷2=66        11+6=17  11+6=17  11+6=17 17+41=58   21+45=66    25+49=74 5+53=58     9+57=66    13+61=74 58+66+74=198  58+74=132  132÷2=66 66+66+66=198  66÷11=6  66÷11=6  66÷11=6 11+6=17  11+6=17  11+6=17 1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8+9+10+11=6×11 An angel goes to a woman who will be pregnant and that her son will have an 11'th hour ministry and he saw saw dreams that came to pass.