### Introduction Joseph Smith is the founder of Mormonism and considered to be an a prophet of God by the LDS Church. Latter Day Saints believe that the Christian bible (Old and New Testaments) predicts the coming of Joseph Smith , that he brought forth the Book of Mormon, restored a lost priesthood, and established the true church. On the other hand, non-LDS Christians call Smith a false prophet and accuse him of theological fraud. ### Question What reasons do non-LDS Christians give for calling Joseph Smith a "false prophet"? What criteria do they use to determine Joseph Smith is not a true Christian prophet?

A recent question and an older question have accrued several answers with 'false' prophecies of Joseph Smith. Below is a compilation of them: 1. D&C 84:2-5,31 Prophecy that the temple would be built in Missouri within Smith's Generation >2 Yea, the word of the Lord concerning his church, established in the last days for the restoration of his people, as he has spoken by the mouth of his prophets, and for the gathering of his saints to stand upon Mount Zion, which shall be the city of New Jerusalem. > >3 Which city shall be built, beginning at the temple lot, which is appointed by the finger of the Lord, in the western boundaries of the State of Missouri, and dedicated by the hand of Joseph Smith, Jun., and others with whom the Lord was well pleased. > >4 Verily this is the word of the Lord, that the city New Jerusalem shall be built by the gathering of the saints, beginning at this place, even the place of the temple, which temple shall be reared in this generation. > >5 For verily this generation shall not all pass away until an house shall be built unto the Lord, and a cloud shall rest upon it, which cloud shall be even the glory of the Lord, which shall fill the house. > >31 Therefore, as I said concerning the sons of Moses—for the sons of Moses and also the sons of Aaron shall offer an acceptable offering and sacrifice in the house of the Lord, which house shall be built unto the Lord in this generation, upon the consecrated spot as I have appointed 2. D&C 87:1-3 1832 Joseph Smith prophesied that the United States civil war would eventually engulf all nations >1 Verily, **thus saith the Lord** concerning the wars that will shortly come to pass, beginning at the rebellion of South Carolina, which will eventually terminate in the death and misery of many souls; > >2 And the time will come that war will be poured out upon all nations, beginning at this place. > >3 For behold, the Southern States shall be divided against the Northern States, and the Southern States will call on other nations, even the nation of Great Britain, as it is called, and they shall also call upon other nations, in order to defend themselves against other nations; and then war shall be poured out upon all nations. 3. History of the Church, vol. 2, p. 182 1835 Joseph Smith prophesied the Lord’s return within 56 years >President Smith then stated that the meeting had been called, because God had commanded it; and it was made known to him by vision and by the Holy Spirit. He then gave a relation of some of the circumstances attending while journeying to Zion—our trials, sufferings; and said God had not designed all this for nothing, but He had it in remembrance yet; and it was the will of God that those who went Zion, with a determination to lay down their lives, if necessary, should be ordained to the ministry, and go forth to prune the vineyard for the last time, or the coming of the Lord, which was nigh—even fifty-six years should wind up the scene. 4. History of the Church, vol. 5, pg. 394 1843 Joseph Smith prophesied that the United States government would be overthrown and wasted within a few years if they refused to redress the wrongs committed against the Mormons in Missouri >**I prophesy in the name of the Lord God** of Israel, unless the United States redress the wrongs committed upon the Saints in the state of Missouri and punish the crimes committed by her officers that in a few years the government will be utterly overthrown and wasted, and there will not be so much as a potsherd left 5. D&C 114:1 Apr 1838 David Patten would go on a mission (he died October 1838 before he could) >1 Verily thus saith the Lord: It is wisdom in my servant David W. Patten, that he settle up all his business as soon as he possibly can, and make a disposition of his merchandise, that he may perform a mission unto me next spring, in company with others, even twelve including himself, to testify of my name and bear glad tidings unto all the world. 6. History of the Church, vol 6, p 116 1843 >While discussing the petition to Congress, I prophesied, by virtue of the holy Priesthood vested in me, and in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ, that, if Congress will not hear our petition and grant us protection, they shall be broken up as a government How do LDS explain how Joseph Smith is a prophet when there are false prophecies?

### LDS Prophecy Joseph Smith made the following prophecy predicting a temple to be built in Independence, Missouri: Doctrines and Covenants 84:5 : > For verily this generation shall not all pass away until an house shall be built unto the Lord, and a cloud shall rest upon it, which cloud shall be even the glory of the Lord, which shall fill the house. No LDS temple was ever constructed in Independence, and Mormons were driven out of the state. Non-LDS Christians point to this prophecy as a clear example of Joseph Smith failing the Deuteronomic test of a prophet . On the other hand, LDS Christians offer numerous explanations for this apparent discrepancy: - The prophecy was conditional, and was delayed because the Mormons were not faithful - "This generation" does not refer to a generation of people but to an age or dispensation - "This generation" does not refer to the generation of Joseph Smith's contemporaries, but to a later group - The prophecy did actually come true in the 19th century, because the "house" in 84:5 referred to the temple built in Kirtland, OH four years after the prophecy ### Gospel Prophecy The gospel of Matthew records another disputed prophecy: Matthew 24:29-34 : >29 Immediately after the suffering of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light; the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of heaven will be shaken. > >30 Then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in heaven, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see ‘the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven’ with power and great glory. > >31 And he will send out his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other. > >32 “From the fig tree learn its lesson: as soon as its branch becomes tender and puts forth its leaves, you know that summer is near. > >33 So also, when you see all these things, you know that he is near, at the very gates. > >34 **Truly I tell you, this generation will not pass away until all these things have taken place**. The apocalyptic events described in 24:29-31 did not occur within the lifetime of the listeners. The sun did not stop shining, and the 'Son of Man' did not appear in the clouds of heaven. Christians offer numerous explanations for this prophecy: - The prophecy was conditional on the people of Israel 'repenting' and accepting Jesus, and was delayed because this did not occur - "This generation" does not refer to a generation of people, but to a specific 'race' of people - "This generation" does not refer to the generation of Jesus's contemporaries, but to a later group - The prophecy did actually come true in the 1st Century when Jerusalem was destroyed (the 'Preterist' position') ### Question LDS Christians offer several resolutions for Joseph Smith's apparent prophetic mistake, and these explanations seem to have significant overlap with Christian explanations of Matthew 24. How do non-LDS Christians who reject D&C 84 as a false prophecy defend using the same explanations that Mormons do?

In 1842, Joseph Smith, the founder of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints (LDS) acquired writings in Egyptian hieroglyphics.These writings were genuine hieroglyphs and were the bases for his translation, the Book of Abraham (see sample in Wikipedia). But, after the discovery of the Rosetta Stone, linguists ascertained that Joseph Smith's translation of the hieroglyphs was not only inaccurate, but better described as fraudulent. His hieroglyphs contained no theological information and nothing about the biblical Patriarch Abraham. Thus,the main question arises,if Joseph Smith fraudulently translated his Book of Abraham, then what is the probability that he also committed fraud in his Book of Mormon, the very centerpiece of LDS?

In some of Joseph Smith Jr.'s last speeches, he mentioned a German translation of the Bible which he was fond of. E.g., he says in the King Follet discourse (emphasis added): > I have an old edition of the New Testament in the Latin, Hebrew, German and Greek languages. **I have been reading the German, and find it to be the most [nearly] correct translation, and to correspond nearest to the revelations which God has given to me for the last fourteen years.** ([History of the Church 6:307](https://byustudies.byu.edu/content/volume-6-chapter-14)) Later on in this same speech, he says (emphasis added): > **In the German, the text bears me out the same as the revelations which I have given and taught for the last fourteen years on that subject.** I have the testimony to put in their teeth. My testimony has been true all the time. You will find it in the declaration of John the Baptist. (Reads from the German.) John says, "I baptize you with water, but when Jesus comes, who has the power (or keys), he shall administer the baptism of fire and the Holy Ghost." Where is now all the sectarian world? And if this testimony is true, they are all damned as clearly as anathema can do it. I know the text is true. I call upon all you Germans who know that it is true to say, Aye. (Loud shouts of "Aye.") ([History of the Church 3:316](https://byustudies.byu.edu/content/volume-6-chapter-14)) In another address shortly before he was murdered (dated May 12, 1844), he says: > **The Germans are an exalted people. The old German translators are the most nearly correct -- most honest of any of the translators; and therefore I get testimony to bear me out in the revelations that I have preached for the last fourteen years.** The old German, Latin, Greek and Hebrew translations all say it is true: they cannot be impeached, and therefore I am in good company. ([History of the Church 6:363](https://byustudies.byu.edu/content/volume-6-chapter-17)) Which German translation is Joseph referring to? I am not familiar with the different translations of the Bible, having only ever read the King James Version in English. [According to Wikipedia,](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bible_translations_into_German) there are several German translations of the Bible. I am interested in this specific version which Joseph owned. Which version is he referring to and where can I get a copy?

Chapter 50 in the book of Genesis is part of the Joseph Smith Translation, written by Joseph Smith himself. Verses 30 and 33 of this chapter says the following (emphasis added): > **30** **And again, a seer will I raise up out of the fruit of thy loins**, and unto him will I give power to bring forth my word unto > the seed of thy loins; and not to the bringing forth of my word only, > saith the Lord, but to the convincing them of my word, which shall > have already gone forth among them in the last days; > > ... > > **33** **And that seer will I bless**, and they that seek to destroy him shall be confounded; for this promise I give unto you; for I will > remember you from generation to generation; **and his name shall be > called Joseph, and it shall be after the name of his father**; and he > shall be like unto you; for the thing which the Lord shall bring forth > by his hand shall bring my people unto salvation. With this passage, Joseph Smith added a prophecy to the Bible book of Genesis which was originally written thousands of years ago. This prophecy is about a future seer who was (to be) named Joseph after the name of the seer's father. For a non-believer at least this looks like a possible attempt by Joseph Smith to retroactively insert a prophecy about himself into the Bible, considering that Joseph Smith was himself a son of a man named Joseph (Joseph Smith Sr. ). However I would assume that members of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints view this passage differently. How do they view it? 1. Is the passage viewed as a reference to some other individual named Joseph, who was also named after his father? 2. Or is the passage viewed as something that God somehow wanted Joseph Smith to include here? 3. Or is it viewed in some other manner altogether?

[Reformed Egyptian](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reformed_Egyptian) is the language that Joseph Smith claimed the Golden Plates (or the Book of Mormon) was written in. But this seems to be a problem considering that there are no [non-LDS scholars that accept it as a legitimate language](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linguistics_and_the_Book_of_Mormon#Native_American_language-development) . So how do Mormons defend this language as real using actual evidence, rather than "just take it on faith?"

I understand the Book of Mormon has a list of witnesses. However, I have heard that these witnesses may not have actually ever seen the gold plates that contained the original manuscripts for the Book of Mormon, but were witnesses in a different sort of way. So, just how many people physically saw and/or touched the gold plates from which Joseph Smith is said to have translated the Book of Mormon? *Note: Martin Harris, one of the witnesses, later explicitly denied seeing the plates with his physical eyes. See article. .*

Several times in recent weeks the suggestion has been made on the site that all of the teachings and scriptures unique to The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints are dependent on one source - Joseph Smith - and that had he not existed (or not made the choices he did), none of these teachings, principles, or scriptures would exist. The claim that these teachings come from a single individual is given as a reason to challenge their authenticity. This suggestion is regularly met with corrective comments - it would be helpful to have a post on the site to reference which addresses the matter specifically. How do Latter-day Saints respond to this claim?

The following is what he stated. "Postmortality One of Adam’s duties in his postmortal role as father of the human race is to help prepare his posterity for the coming of the Lord Jesus Christ. Daniel 7:22 [Dan. 7:22] speaks of the return of the Ancient of Days, which the Prophet Joseph Smith said “means the oldest man, our Father Adam, Michael, [who] will call his children together and hold a council with them to prepare them for the coming of the Son of Man” (Teachings, 157). This preparatory council will be held at Adam-ondi-Ahman (see D&C 116:1; Teachings, 122) and will be attended by the Savior (see Teachings, 158)." Also, Smith says that Michael, will call his children together and hold a council with them to prepare them for the coming of the Son of Man. This preparatory council will be held at "Adam-ondi-Ahman." According to Mormon sources this council meeting will take place at "Adam-ondi-Ahman." This is a historic site in Daviess County Missouri, about five miles south of Jameson. It is located along the east bluffs above the Grand River. According to Daniel 7:1 and the entire context of Daniel 7, Daniel has a dream/visions of God at judgment. This "begs" the question, who has visions of Adam being the "Ancient of Days" and calling for a council meeting in the state of Missouri?

In Christian apologetics, a common argument for the reliability of the eyewitness accounts of the apostles is the fact that they were willing to withstand persecution and even martyrdom for what they believed to be true. However, Latter-day Saints use the very same argument to back up the authenticity of Joseph Smith's testimony, who, according to them, sealed his testimony with his own blood as a martyr, just like the 1st century apostles (e.g. see [here](https://www.churchofjesuschrist.org/study/manual/teachings-joseph-smith/chapter-46?lang=eng) and [here](https://history.churchofjesuschrist.org/content/martyr-for-god?lang=eng)) . How do non-LDS Christians respond to the *Joseph Smith's martyrdom* argument? ______ A counterpoint question can be found at [How do Latter-day Saints respond to the non-LDS argument that Joseph Smith's death was not comparable to the martyrdom of the ancient apostles?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/84457/50422) More examples of non-Christian religious martyrs can be found in [this answer](https://history.stackexchange.com/a/65666/46818) .

This question is offered as a counterpoint to: How do non-LDS Christians respond to the LDS argument that Joseph Smith died as a Martyr for God, just like the Apostles? In particular, an argument from Sean McDowell focuses on the character and motives of Joseph Smith, to suggest that no comparison is warranted. How do Latter-day Saints respond to these claims?

In March 1844, Joseph Smith organized a special council in the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints known as the Council of Fifty. Much has been written about the nature and purpose of this organization, which I won't recapitulate here, as that is beyond the scope of my question. My interest in this council is very specific. I simply want to know how many Council members (and who those members were) that practiced plural marriage. This includes whether they practiced it in Nauvoo or later. I'm *only* interested in the original members of this Council that were initiated by Joseph Smith during the Nauvoo period, not the ones who were added later after his death. There are lists of the members of this council at: - Wikipedia - The Joseph Smith Papers - PDF version with dates of membership in the Council - *The Council of Fifty and Its Members, 1844 to 1945* by D. Michael Quinn - *"It Seems Like Heaven Began on Earth": Joseph Smith and the Constitution of the Kingdom of God* by Andrew F. Ehat , extracted from William Clayton's Journal, April 18, 1844. As far as I know, no one has yet compiled a list which correlates how many members (or what percentage of the members) of the Council of Fifty also practiced plural marriage, either in Nauvoo or later. I would like a list of how many Council members practiced it and what their names were. If anyone has a paper, book, article, etc., which makes this correlation, that would be helpful.

As I understand it, the LDS Church teaches that the Book of Mormon was written on gold plates in a language called "Reformed Egyptian". According to the LDS Church, what did Joseph Smith use and how exactly did he translate the Book of Mormon?

I am aware of the Latter Day Saints and the Reformed Latter Day Saints, both of which, to my understanding, recognize the Book of Mormon as Scripture and follow the teachings of Joseph Smith. I have heard, though, that there are other groups as well. How many groups/denominations recognize the Book of Mormon as Scripture or follow the teachings of Joseph Smith? Also, who are they (What do they call themselves?)

The Bible also teaches God is eternal. Psalm 90:2, "Before the mountains were born, Or Thou didst give birth to the earth and the world, Even from everlasting to everlasting, Thou are God." And in the New Testament, 1 Timothy 1:17, Now to the King eternal, immortal, invisible, the only God, be honor and glory for ever and ever. Amen" Yet Joseph Smith contradicts not only the Bible but his own words from his first article of faith. ""We have imagined and supposed that God was God from all eternity. I will now refute that idea, and take away the veil, so that you may see...he was once a man like us... (Smith, Teaching of the Prophet, pp. 345,346.) So how does the Lds church reconcile/justify this "glaring" contradiction?

The following is what Joseph Smith said from "Doctrines & Covenants, Section 130, Paragraph 3 regarding John 14:23. >John 14:23—The appearing of the Father and the Son, in that verse, is a personal appearance; and the idea that the Father and the Son can dwell in a man’s heart is an old sectarian notion, and is false." Here is what the verse says >John 14:23,"If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word, and my Father will love him, and We shall come to him, and make Our abode with him." The "we" of "we will come unto him" refers to the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. In other words, the disciple becomes the residence of God. the Apostle Paul elaborates on this truth when he says, "Know ye not that ye are the temple of God, and that the Spirit of God dwelleth in you?" 1 Corinthians 3:16. Paul also said, "Or do you not know that your body is a temple of the Holy Spirit who is in you, whom you have from God, and that you are not your own." 1 Corinthians 6:19. Other verses would include 1 John 4:15, "Whosoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God, God abides in Him, and he in God." Ephesians 3:17 and Revelation 3:20 also support God making His abode in believers. It is my opinion on this is since Smith and his followers believe that God has a body of flesh and bone and cannot be everywhere present at the same time therefore God cannot indwell a believer. I decided to look up the word "sectarian" that Smith used. "Denoting or concerning a sect or sects." Is not this the question that Smith asked God the Father and God the Son? "Which of all the sects was right that I might know which to join." The answer he received was, >" I must join none of them, for they were all wrong; and the personage who addressed me said that all their creeds were an abomination in his sight; that those professors were all corrupt; that they draw near to me with their lips, but their hearts are far from me; they teach for doctrines the commandments of man, having the form of godliness, but they deny the power thereof." So my question is: On what basis did Mormon Prophet Joseph Smith declare that God the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit cannot indwell a believer? I meant to post Romans 8:11 but simply forgot. " >But if the Spirit of Him who raised Jesus from the dead dwells in you, He who raised Christ Jesus from the dead will also give life to your mortal bodies THROUGH HIS SPIRIT WHO INDWELLS YOU." The following is the LDS view of the Holy Spirit, https://www.churchofjesuschrist.org/study/manual/gospel-topics/holy-ghost ? lang=eng Notice the statement: >All honest seekers of the truth can feel the influence of the Holy Ghost, leading them to Jesus Christ and His gospel." The Dictionary defines "feelings," Feeling is a general term for a subjective point of view as well as for specific sensations; readily affected by emotion. The point is that "truth" is not based on subjective feelings or emotions.

I'm interested in Joseph Smith's non-religious worldviews and I'm curious if he did any substantial writing outside of a strictly religious context (i.e. philosophy, politics, etc).

In May 1829, Joseph Smith and Oliver Cowdery went into the woods to pray because of some questions they had about baptism. As recorded by Joseph Smith, they were visited by John the Baptist, who gave them the Aaronic Priesthood. The Aaronic Priesthood included the authority to baptize. John then directed them to baptize each other. First, Joseph baptized Oliver, then, Oliver baptized Joseph. This is an unusual arrangement because baptism generally precedes receiving the priesthood, and usually the baptizer has already been baptized. As I understand it, in order to perform a priesthood ordinance it is necessary to have a physical body (this is why baptisms for the dead are performed by the living by proxy). As a resurrected being, John the Baptist had a physical body – evidenced by the fact that he laid his hands on their heads when he gave them the Aaronic Priesthood. So, he should have been able to baptize them as well. My question is this: Why didn't John baptize Joseph and Oliver, or at least Joseph, and then give him/them the priesthood? It seems that this would better establish the order of baptism first, then receiving the priesthood. Is it something to do with the nature of resurrected beings? Or, is there something specific Joseph and Oliver needed to learn? Joseph Smith's account is recorded in Joseph Smith—History .

We know that historically Joseph Smith taught himself Hebrew (as to how well, I'm not sure), and that he held beliefs similar to Jewish mysticism (degrees of heaven, preexistence, fall of angels, etc.), but do we know if he had access to and was familiar with Kabbalah writings? Did he study them in the original Hebrew? How familiar would the average American Christian leader at that time be with Kabbalah? Is Joseph Smith exceptional in this regard?