It appears from this question and answer that the Jehovah's Witnesses hold a slightly different understanding of God's omniscience than the typical Orthodox view wherein God always and at all times knows absolutely everything past, present, and future. From what I understand, the JW position is that God **can** know anything He wishes to know but, when it comes to foreknowledge, He does not choose to exercise the ability universally. In other words, God chooses what things He will and, by extension, will not foreknow. Various branches of Open Theism attempt to describe how the future can be epistemically open to God and the two main branches hold the future to be either alethically settled or open. This related question outlines the 4 main branches of Open Theism and, of the four, I believe JW thought lines up most closely with Voluntary Nescience (although I am not sure if JW believe that the future is alethically settled): > Voluntary Nescience: The future is alethically settled but nevertheless epistemically open for God because he has voluntarily chosen not to know truths about future contingents ... Even if Vulontary Nescience is not an accurate summation of JW belief regarding God's omniscience, still they do assert that God chooses what He will and will not foreknow. Searching through the Scriptures it seems that there are a great many things which it was critical for God to have foreknown and which, indeed, He did foreknow. Most notably, all prophesy spoken by or through God consists of foreknown future events. I say foreknown because God is not guessing: He is telling beforehand what **will** come to pass. Some of those are things that He brings to pass and one might say that He foreknows what He Himself will do. Others are things that hinge upon human decisions (often a multiplicity). My question is, according to Jehovah's Witnesses, How does God foreknow which things He must foreknow and which things He can safely leave unforeseen without resorting to the equivalent of guessing? Another way of phrasing this is, If God chooses to foreknow certain things from the set of all of the possible things that there are to foreknow how can He identify the critical items and choose to foreknow them without knowing what all of the non-critical items actually are?

Jesus, being divine, is portrayed in the Gospels as knowing the hearts and thoughts of men (John 2:25, Matthew 9:4). In the Garden of Gethsemane, Peter draws a sword (or knife) and cuts off the ear of the high priest's servant (John 18:10), only to be rebuked by Jesus and told to put it away (Matthew 26:52). Given that Jesus had divine foreknowledge and perfect awareness of His surroundings, why did He allow Peter to carry or hide the knife in the first place? Was Jesus allowing this act to happen as part of a prophetic fulfillment or a deeper lesson on violence and obedience? Or does this highlight something about the tension between human zeal and divine purpose? How do Christian theologians and commentators interpret this moment in light of Jesus’ omniscience?

I've often heard of the concept of Omniscience which is based on scripture that states God **knows all things.** > Isaiah 46:10 10 declaring the end from the beginning and from ancient times things not yet done, saying, ‘My counsel shall stand, and I will accomplish all my purpose,’ > 1 John 3:20 in whatever our heart condemns us; for God is greater than our heart and knows all things. > Psalm 139:4 Even before there is a word on my tongue, Behold, O Lord, You know it all. Does this quality of God include knowledge of everything that does not yet exist nor has yet occurred on the earth? More specifically: ***Does God already know every action and decision every human will choose to make in the future? How does this correlate with the objective truth that He has included free-will in the design of His creation?*** Please provide scriptural support.

This was originally part of [this question](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/1478/do-we-have-free-will-or-is-it-an-illusion) However, it's really a separate line of logic (and therefore a different question, imo). If others prefer, I can remerge this into the original. ----- God is omniscient. He truly, literally knows everything. God knows whether or not I will sin. God can (and does) direct certain people to prevent them from choosing one way or another. [Exodus 4:21 (NIV)](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Exodus%204:21&version=NIV) >The LORD said to Moses, “When you return to Egypt, see that you perform before Pharaoh all the wonders I have given you the power to do. But I will harden his heart so that he will not let the people go. Clearly, this is an instance where God stepped in and prevent Pharaoh from making the decision. Since he controls decisions and knows what decisions I will make, do I truly have free will? Or do I only have free will in the inconsequential things (which isn't really free will, after all)?

The relationship between God's foreknowledge (or omniscience) and the free will of humans seems to be a complicated topic where multiple positions exist. Regardless of my position (which you can read about here: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/101932/how-do-non-open-theists-reason-a-basis-for-free-will and https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/101985/how-would-an-open-theist-explain-that-gods-exhaustive-foreknowledge-would-lead) I think it would be helpful to have an overview of all the various positions that arose (including Open Theism). The main questions I have for each position would be: - How do they imagine God's foreknowledge works? - Is God's foreknowledge exhaustive or limited? - What are the biggest biblical arguments they put forward? - Do humans have "free will" and if so, how does it work? - Do they avoid Fatalism/Predeterminism? If so how?

In the Old Testament, God is identified by many things. Among these are His name, His unique attributes and characteristics, his role or office relative to His creation, and His unique abilities and actions. Sometimes these are combined in scripture when referring to God. One such combination is God's totally unique abilities and actions and His role as the judge of men's hearts and His authority to reward them according to His own findings. This identifies God as omniscient (an attribute unique to God) and as the judge of their hearts (a role or authority unique to God alone). Jeremiah 17:10 says: > "I, the LORD, **search the heart, I test the mind**, even > to give each man according to his ways, **According to the results of > his deeds.**" Please answer this simple question: who is it that Jeremiah addresses as the one that sees the hearts of men and Himself tests the mind? Who does the Old Testament repeatedly identify as this One who is so omniscient as to judge the hearts of men? (See 1 Samuel 16:7, 1 Chronicles 28:9, 29:17, 2 Chronicles 6:30, Psalm 7:9, 139:1, and others.) I ask this question because this is what Jesus Christ stated in Revelation 2:23: > "And I will kill her children with pestilence; and all the churches > will know that I am He who searches **the minds and hearts**; and I > will give to each one of you **according to your deeds.**" So you suppose that in writing this passage where Jesus identifies Himself as the one who searches the hearts of men and rewards them according to His judgment that John might have had reason to think that Jesus is the *same one* as the one who so identifies Himself throughout the Old Testament?

The Bible does state very many times that God already knows our earthly and eternal destinies. Jesus chose Judas Iscariot because he knew his destiny was to betray him. Jesus knew Paul would try to persecute the church in Damascus and intercepted him on the way. Jesus also knew the thief to his right will confess and they will be re united paradise the same day. My question is, if God already knows who gets to be saved and who doesn't, why should anyone make an effort to be saved when an individual's destiny is already known to God?

If the Christian God is omniscient, He knows everything, and if He is omnipotent, He is all powerful. But these two statements seem to be contradictory. So if a Christian believes that his/her God has these two attributes, aren't these two attributes contradictory as well? Below is why I think they are contradictory: - If God is all knowing, God is able to know the future of every human being and also of Himself. - But if God knows precisely what He will do at any point in time, does He still have free will? - If God is all powerful, could He make a choice at any particular point in time that is **not** determined by His omniscience? ---- @GratefulDisciple transferring OP's comment to the Q for more context: **Note**: This is a question on theism in general, and **I'm interested in a Christian answer to help me with seeing the logic** in holding two seemingly contradictory attributes while preserving God's own free will. I pose this question with a great respect in the belief of a God and I don't mean any derogation to the faith of Christianity nor do I want to upset the users in this community.

So in the comments of this answer: [How do non-Open-Theists reason a basis for "Free will"?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/101939/46521) The question: > "Why must it be that a choice that is known by God in advance is not > your own? [...]" – Dark Malthorp was raised. My position in general is that through God's exhaustive foreknowledge, the possible options one can choose will be reduced to one. To my knowledge (correct me if I am wrong with this assumption) this position corresponds with the position of Open-Theism. Therefore, I was wondering if there is an Open-Theist argumentation or explanation that can demonstrate this correlation between omniscience and determinism more precisely and concisely than my attempt in the comments. *God's foreknowledge*: God's knowledge of the future. It can logically be viewed as exhaustive (God knows absolutely everything, which is how I would define omniscience in regards to future), limited (God knows something/a lot but not everything), or non-existent (God knows nothing about the future. *predetermination*: This is the view that every action/decision of humans is already determined, meaning unchangeable regardless of the "illusion" or choice. This could also result in Fatalism . *accountability*: Is the possibility that humans can be justifiably punished for their actions.

In talking to Jehovah's Witnesses I found it difficult to discover what they believed on these three attributes: Omnipotent - God cannot be thwarted by the Devil, sin, sinners, or the world but is all-powerful in all things. Omniscient - God knows all things about all things, past, present and future, all the time. Nothing escapes his knowledge, including our thoughts & motives. Omnipresent - God is in all places, at all times, in the fullness of his being. It is not just a bit of God everywhere, but _all_ of God is everywhere _all the time_. So he does not need angels or anyone else to inform him of anything anywhere at any time. What is the Jehovah's Witness belief on these matters?

The underlying issue/debate that I am having is the reconciliation of God's omniscience (the foreknowledge part in particular) with free will (or lack of it, resulting in Fatalism). In short: If God knows **everything**, including every future action I take before I was even born, how can I take responsibility for sin if I can't prove God wrong? For example: @telion's unborn daughter will lie on 12.12.2050 (I ask this on 02.06.2024 without even having a girlfriend). => If that future sin is known then it follows (at least for me) that this sin is predetermined. => This contradicts the idea of human responsibility for their sins and the free will God provides. It also means that God is responsible for all human sin, which is probably the wrong conclusion. One way to resolve this is to "redefine" the definition of God's omniscience or free will. This is why this question is a follow-up of this one: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/101929/what-is-the-biblical-concept-idea-meaning-of-gods-omniscience My personal solution would be to say that God has knowledge of the future but this knowledge is limited in such a way, that human free will is possible. I recently came to know that this position actually has a name which is Open Theism . In the question https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/83747/which-verses-in-the-bible-say-that-god-is-omniscient the [accepted answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/83748/10672) features a defense against Open Theism that includes a lot of scripture, which comes to the conclusion that God has "exhaustive knowledge of the future". However, I either don't understand the actual solution that is provided to the problem of predetermination provided by this defense, or I am simply unconvinced. I think the reason for that is the definition of "free will" or as John Frame puts it: "uncaused actions". I don't think actions are uncaused but there is still a freedom of decision. Meaning if I have 2 options to choose from, then the "probability" of which one I will pick doesn't have to be 50/50. Let's say I have to decide which subject I should get a college degree in: Based on my interests, upbringing, and life goals, specific options are more likely than others so regardless of what I choose, the decision is not free of influence. Influence is not the same thing as predetermination, as I can choose to disregard a specific influence. **So how do I imagine the perspective of God on the future and free will?** I think it is similar to the perspective of the developer of the Game Detroit: Become Human . (To get a better feel for the concept behind the game, see [this video]( https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=t3cLDDwLeJA); at 16.48 the player has to decide between lying or telling the truth.) In this game, the player plays through a story and is provided with various decisions that can greatly impact the overall storyline of the game. In this case, the developer knows and provides all possible options. So he is not particularly surprised by a specific event. The player in this case has limited free will, meaning he cannot decide to simply become a shopkeeper e.g., as that is not an option in the game. But the decisions provided to the player are free. I also think that based on God's almightiness, "forgetting" or "choosing to not know" which options people finally decide, should be in the realm of possibility. The competing view/analogy is that of a movie, where the viewer is "beyond time" from the perspectives of the characters in the movie (as I can fast forward, go back, or replay the movie). In this case, though, I argue that the characters in the movie, don't have actual free will, or at least the "free will" in that case is illusionary. So if I as a movie creator make a story where a person commits a sin, then I can hardly blame the character for it. So to summarize the question(s): - How do non-Open Theists argue for human free will? - How do non-Open Theists argue against predeterminism? - How do non-Open Theists finally conclude that humans are responsible for their sins?

I have rewritten my question a few times because I had difficulties dealing with the definition of omniscience. Originally I wanted to know the difference between the concept of omniscience from a logical point of view with the view of the bible. However, I noticed that defining omniscience from a logical or philosophical point of view, although interesting, is quite a bag of worms, that I might open with a different question though. I know this could make the question difficult to answer as one might respond with: "What do you mean with omniscience then?" to which I respond with: "That is exactly the question. What is omniscience according to the Bible?". To break the cycle though, we could go for the scope/limits of God's knowledge if that helps. In this question, I am interested in the Biblical view/concept/meaning and limits of the omniscience of God. What can we actually conclude from the Bible on the nature of omniscience? In particular, I am most interested in the omniscience of God regarding the future (foreknowledge). **So for a focused phrasing of the question:** - **What is the concept/idea/meaning/nature of omniscience in the Bible?** - Are there limits to this omniscience described in the Bible? If so which are they? - Maybe the question could also be: "What does the Bible say about the scope/limit of God's knowledge?" - If the word "omniscience" is not the word that represents the biblical position with adequate precision: What would be a better word? **So a few Verses that I came across when researching omniscience in the Bible:** Hebrews 4:13 > And no creature is hidden from his sight, but all are naked and exposed to the eyes of him to whom we must give account. From Hebrews, I can conclude that God is seeing/is aware of every creature. The "exposed" part is a bit more abstract for me, but I think it points to the idea that humans cannot deceive God by lying or omitting information. What I cannot conclude from Hebrews yet is a total omniscience, since it does not say anything about past/future or possibilities. 1 John 3:20 > for whenever our heart condemns us, God is greater than our heart, and he knows everything. So either omniscience in 1. John is focused on our heart here, meaning our inner thoughts, emotions, unconscious thoughts, and attitudes, and I would even go for other factors, like hormones. Or "everything" is referring to literally everything. Isaiah 46:10 > I make known the end from the beginning, from ancient times, what is still to come. I say, “My purpose will stand, and I will do all that I please.” From Isaiah, I drew the conclusion that God knows everything that happened in the past but more importantly, what will happen in the future. Matthew 10:29-30 > Are not two sparrows sold for a penny? And not one of them will fall to the ground apart from your Father. 30 But even the hairs of your head are all numbered. The omniscience in Matthew seems to be similar to the one in Hebrews, basically saying that God knows everything that is going on physically. **Edit added Bible passages (Thank you @Mark Vestal)** 1 Peter 1:2 > "Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through > sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the > blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied." => Here I can only conclude that God has some foreknowledge, but it's not clear to what extent. Or at least I am not sure how "Elect according" impacts the scope of Gods foreknowledge. Acts 2:22-23 > 22 Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know: Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain: => This passage is focused on Jesus and the foreknowledge of God regarding it. The question here is though if that was God's foreknowledge or plan. Are there verses that I missed? In Reference to the previous questions: - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/2003/how-do-christians-reconcile-gods-omnipotence-with-his-omniscience The Answers here are focusing a lot on omnipotence instead of omniscience. - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/2643/what-is-the-biblical-evidence-for-gods-omnipotence-and-omniscience Here there are more biblical passages quotes for omniscience. However, I am asking for a biblical-based description of omniscience. - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/8242/what-is-meant-by-god-is-omnipotent/8262#8262 features a great answer regarding omnipotence compared to the term "almighty". This answer might have implications for omniscience, but it is still focused on omnipotence nevertheless. - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/97651/why-make-an-effort-to-get-saved-if-my-life-is-pre-destined-by-god While the description of Matthew (Author of the top answer) of God being beyond time might work intuitively I am again more interested in the biblical view/basis of it. - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/83747/which-verses-in-the-bible-say-that-god-is-omniscient Another great answer for more passages. However, it also features a defence against Open Theism that includes a lot of scripture, which comes to the conclusion that God has "exhaustive knowledge of the future". **Differences in denominations:** Just to make sure that this factor does not close this question as I don't know if there are denominational differences that are significant enough to warrant a closing of the question: The question focuses specifically on what can be concluded from the Bible. I even made the mistake of opening the question on Biblical-Hermeneutics.SE because of that focus. But I will always cherish the perspective of any denomination, so if there are differences I am interested in reading about them.

Elder Jeffrey R. Holland of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints (LDS) has taught that the Father, the Son, and the Holy Ghost are separate persons, three divine beings . Thus, there currently are at least three separate and distinct beings to whom the term *God* applies within the context of our world and within the sphere of our knowledge. Additionally, in the future there will be an as yet unspecified number of Gods when certain individuals achieve exaltation and become equally divine. Another official LDS teaching is that God knows all things , i.e. God is omniscient. The Book of Mormon teaches: > 20 O how great the holiness of our God! For he knoweth all things, and there is not anything save he knows it. (2 Nephi 9:20) Of the many times in the book of Isaiah alone where God declares Himself to be the only God there is one particular passage where, in addition to the claim that He is the only God and that He declares the future, He also says that He knows of no other God: > **Thus saith the LORD** the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and **beside me there is no God**. And **who, as I**, shall call, and **shall declare** it, and set it in order for me, since I appointed the ancient people? and **the things that are coming, and shall come**, let them shew unto them. Fear ye not, neither be afraid: have not I told thee from that time, and have declared it? ye are even my witnesses. **Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any**. - Isaiah 44:6-8 According to the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter Day Saints, why doesn't omniscient God, *who declares things that are and that will be* (future does not limit His omniscience), know about the existence of any other Gods? ____________________________________________________________________________ *A point of clarification*: This question is not about God's declarations of singularity and how LDS interprets them--that has already been addressed here , here , and here . This question asks why omniscient God does not know of the other Gods that LDS claims exist. *In defense of non-duplication*: Here is an extended explanation detailing why this question is not a duplicate and why answers given thus far to this question and other related question do not answer this question.

This well referenced article chronicles the history of a 12 year long contention which arose in the early days of the LDS Church between Apostle Orson Pratt and (then) first president Brigham Young. While there are tangential aspects associated with this contention, the main thrust centered upon the state or condition of God's knowledge: Whether God is perfect or complete in knowledge (Pratt) or ever growing in knowledge (Young). Pratt insisted that God could not be God without perfect omniscience whereas Young insisted that such a perfection in God renders eternity a meaningless concept. While the contention became quite intense it is to Young's credit that he continuously endeavored to maintain brotherhood and fellowship with Pratt, which thing his religion holds in very high esteem. Ultimately, Pratt acceded to the authority of the First Presidency and, although he never changed his mind about God not being God unless his knowledge was absolutely complete, he did agree to never again publish such an opinion in any LDS literature unless it was confirmed by the Presidency and he publically approved of the collection and destruction of whatever he had published which was contrary: > I, therefore, embrace the present opportunity of publicly expressing my most sincere regret, that I have ever published the least thing which meets with the disapprobation of the highest authorities of the Church; and I do most cordially join with them in the request, that you should make such disposition of the publication alluded to, as counsel- led in their proclamation. Towards the end of the article it is noted that, after Brigham Young's death, vehemence against Orson Pratt's ideas waned and now such influential twentieth century church exegetes as Joseph Fielding Smith find favor with Pratt's ideas: > "I believe that God knows all things and that his understanding is perfect, not 'relative.' I have never seen or heard of any revealed fact to the contrary. I believe that our Heavenly Father and his Son Jesus Christ are perfect. I offer no excuse for the simplicity of my faith." What is the current, official LDS doctrine regarding the state or condition of God's knowledge, whether it be perfect and complete or ever growing? Note- All of the quotations here are taken from the linked article.

There seems to be a contradiction between these two verses. > So the LORD said, "I will wipe from the face of the earth the human race I have created--and with them the animals, the birds and the creatures that move along the ground--for I regret that I have made them." Genesis 6:7 > “He paid for you with the precious lifeblood of Christ, the sinless, spotless Lamb of God. God chose Him for this purpose long before the world began, but now in these final days, He was sent to the earth for all to see. And He did this for you.” 1 Peter 1:19-20 In Genesis, God judges mankind and destroys them, seemingly thinking that will fix them. In 1 Peter we're told that salvation through Jesus was the plan since the very beginning. So the motivation for the flood doesn't make sense in this light. How is this apparent contradiction typically explained?

In Hebrews 8, the author discusses the two covenants God has made. Why the need for two? Surely God knew that the first could not be kept by man. Why didn’t He just start with the covenant of Christ?

> [**Matthew 24:36**](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew%2024:36&version=NLT) (NLT) > [**Mark 13:32**](http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark%2013:32&version=NLT) (NLT) > > 36 “However, no one knows the day or hour when these things will happen, not even the angels in heaven or the Son himself. Only the Father knows.” Now hold on a minute here... in according to the doctrine of the Trinity, God the Father and God the Son are the same God, yet the Father knows something the Son doesn't? What's going on here?

What is a survey of beliefs in contemporary Trinitarian denominations regarding whether the Holy Spirit - a co-equal person of the Godhead - is omniscient? Do any hold members should be expelled if they deny such belief?

Mark 13:32 says: >"**No one** knows about that day or hour, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but **only the Father**." Jesus here is apparently saying the Holy Spirit doesn't know something. How do Trinitarians, who hold the Holy Spirit as a co-equal person of the Godhead, understand this verse?

Matthew 24:36 >But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. ***Why doesn't Jesus know everything like his God and Father?***