God is described as Father *passim* in the New Testament, but where in the Old Testament is God described as a Father?

Many Protestants object to the practice of addressing priests as "Father," citing Matthew 23:9. > And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven. Is there a respectful way for someone who is not Catholic to address a priest other than calling him "Father"?

Wikipedia explains the etymology of the word Pope as follows: > The word pope is derived ultimately from the Greek πάππας > (páppas) originally an affectionate term meaning "father", later > referring to a bishop or patriarch. The earliest record of the use > of this title is in regard to the Patriarch of Alexandria, Pope > Heraclas of Alexandria (232–248) in a letter written by his > successor, Pope Dionysius of Alexandria, to Philemon, a Roman > presbyter: > > τοῦτον ἐγὼ τὸν κανόνα καὶ τὸν τύπον παρὰ τοῦ μακαρίου πάπα ἡμῶν Ἡρακλᾶ παρέλαβον. > > Which translates into: > > I received this rule and ordinance from our blessed father/pope, Heraclas. > > From the early 3rd century the title was applied generically to all > bishops. The earliest extant record of the word papa being used > in reference to a Bishop of Rome dates to late 3rd century, when it > was applied to Pope Marcellinus. Eventually the term Pope/Papa was limited to the Bishop of Rome alone and now, in the Roman Catholic church, the term 'Father' is usually used to address priests: > In the early church, members of the clergy generally did not have standard titles. However, an accepted way to address bishops was “papa” or “pappa,” which referred to the role of the bishops as father figures. This name eventually became associated solely with the Bishop of Rome. The highest title in the Catholic Church, that of “Pope,” is derived from those early titles. By the late Middle Ages, priests belonging to various religious orders were called father. This practice has persisted to modern times, as priests are customarily called father today. - Mercy Home Regardless of whether papa/father is used to refer to the Pope or Bishops or local Priests the idea underneath seems to be a reference to spiritual and familial paternity based ultimately upon the notion that Adam was created to be both High Priest and Father of all humanity: > Adam is the father of the human race, as well as the high priest of humanity. Thus, there is an intimate link between priesthood and fatherhood. The priesthood leading up to Aaron and the Levites is a familial priesthood. What is important to understand during this period of salvation history is that the father of the family is a priest, and the prominence of the first-born son in the family. - Catholic News Agency In Matthew chapter 9 Jesus is speaking to the crowd and the disciples and He is talking about the Scribes and Pharisees, that is to say the religious teachers and leaders. What he tells everyone is: > But be not ye called Rabbi: for one is your Master, even Christ; and all ye are brethren. And call no man your father upon the earth: for one is your Father, which is in heaven. Neither be ye called masters: for one is your Master, even Christ. - Matthew 23:8-10 1) Don't allow anyone to call you teacher/guide or Master because Christ is in that role and you are all brothers/equal under Him. 2) Don't call anyone on earth your Father because only God fills that role The prohibition appears to be twofold: One is against accepting the designations of teacher or master over another and the second is against assigning the designation of Father to anyone. It should be obvious that these prohibitions are expected to be understood 'spiritually' both from the immediate context and the Bible as a whole (since Jesus has made clear that, spiritually, there are only two fatherhoods : God or the Devil) as well as from common sense ... we all have natural fathers as well as secular teachers, mentors, and bosses. Taking the Matthew passage at face value there is no clear prohibition against a priest, for example, accepting the designation (spiritual) 'Father' but there is clear prohibition against anyone actually assigning that designation to 'any man on earth'. A highly voted answer to this strongly related question indicates a Catholic view that Jesus was prohibiting the term 'Father' being applied to those who are undeserving of the term: > Jesus is not forbidding us to call men "fathers" who actually are such—either literally or spiritually. [...] To refer to such people as fathers is only to acknowledge the truth, and Jesus is not against that. He is warning people against inaccurately attributing fatherhood—or a particular kind or degree of fatherhood—to those who do not have it. With this understanding in mind coupled with the fact that priests in the Catholic Church seem to be called 'Father' by custom rather than according to whether they deserve the title (that is to say, a priest who does not have the heart of a shepherd nor the well-being of his flock as priority will still, by custom, be called 'Father'), how does the Catholic Church interpret Matthew 23:9 so as to normalize priests being called Father irregardless of their performance?

Did any of the Church Fathers or any other significant theologian in Eastern Orthodoxy state that we should not call spiritual leaders “father” or “teacher?”

Concerning the Nicene Creed, is Jesus equal to God the Father? If so I am a little confused because in Mark 10:18 >And Jesus said unto him, Why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, that is, God. Also, if I recall the Holy Spirit comes down from the Father in Heaven during the baptism of Jesus, with the Holy Spirit descending on him as a dove in Matthew 3:13–17, Mark 1:9–11, and Luke 3:21–23. The temptation of Jesus, in Matthew 4:1 the Holy Spirit led Jesus to the desert to be tempted. The Spirit casts out demons in Exorcising the blind and mute man miracle but The Nicene Creed also says 'I believe in the Holy Spirit, the Lord, the giver of life, who proceeds from the Father and the Son, who with the Father and the Son is adored and glorified, who has spoken through the prophets. In many instances, Jesus prayed to God the Father for the ability to perform miracles, asking his Father God in Heaven for a miracle. However, Jesus “breathed on them [the fearful disciples locked in the room] and said to them: 'Receive the Holy Spirit'” (Jn 20:22). Jesus gives the Spirit to the disciples after he “hands over the Spirit” to the women and the beloved disciple at the foot of the cross (Jn 19:30)

Which of the following wisdom books, - Proverbs - Ecclesiastes - Wisdom - Ecclesiasticus (Sirach), are advice addressed by a father to his son? Yes, Job, the Psalms, and Solomon's Canticle of Canticles (Song of Solomon) are wisdom literature, too, but they're clearly not father-son advice.

We see Jesus saying at Matthew 5:48 (NRSVCE) > "Be perfect, therefore, as your heavenly Father is perfect" Now, the image of God the Father that the Jewish people had had, before they listened to the teachings of Jesus including the Parable of the Prodigal Son, would be the one at Psalm 103:8-10 (NRSVCE): " The Lord is merciful and gracious, slow to anger and abounding in steadfast love.He will not always accuse, nor will he keep his anger forever.He does not deal with us according to our sins,nor repay us according to our iniquities."" That is, God the Father did get angry many a time and punished the Israel occasionally! Could the Jews therefore, treat Him as the role model of perfection? Would not Jesus himself, in human nature and form, make a better candidate as the role model of perfection for the Jews? My question therefore is: Why did Jesus project God the Father as the role model of perfection? Does the Catholic Church offer any comments on the issue?