[Full preterists](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Preterism) believe that all prophecies in the Bible have already been fulfilled, including those related to the final resurrection, the Second Coming of Christ, and the Final Judgment. I have met some Protestant preterists who believe that their beliefs are in accord with the ecumenical creeds, despite language in the creeds that seems to imply that the Second Coming and other eschatological events are yet to come. Do any Roman Catholic or Protestant councils or creeds specifically state that full preterist beliefs are heretical?

Zechariah speaks of “all the peoples” (Zech. 12:2), “and all the people of the earth will gather against it (Jerusalem)” (Zech. 12:3), and “I will gather all the nations to fight against Jerusalem” (Zech. 14:2). These verses do not seem to be referring to the Romans in A.D. 70. Further on, Zechariah continues, saying: “On that day the Lord will shield those who live in Jerusalem” (Zech. 12:8), and: “Then the Lord will go out and fight against those nations, as he fights on a day of battle” (Zech. 14:3). I concluded that none of this fits with what happened to Jerusalem in A.D. 70, when the Romans conquered Israel. Finally, the passage says that the Lord will save Israel on that day (Zech. 14:3), whereas in A.D. 70, the Lord judged Israel, as written in Luke 21:20–24. So how can preterists say that Zechariah is speaking of A.D. 70 if, in this passage, the Lord is saving His people? james stuart russell the parousia The AD 70 Doctrine description

Do preterists interpret the generation referenced in Mathew 24:34 as a future generation or the generation Jesus was addressing during this sermon, this is because most preterists justify eschatological events as history using this verse as primary basis. >"Truly I tell you, this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened.(Mathew 24:34)"

This is a two part question. 1. In Full Preterism we localize all meaning of the "cosmos", "world", & "heaven and earth" to mean nothing more than "covenant". Apocalyptic language used in the Olivet discourse and revelation are not about the end of the world, but actually the end of the Jewish age. Therefore we are in perfection now. There are no plans to redeem the world, only to redeem a localized group of people. Judgment is the same, There is only judgment for a small localized group (Jews in 70ad). This hermeneutic is largely based on Jeremiah 4:22-26 where the world is described as lifeless, void, without form, and there being no sun, as the author describes the destruction of the first temple. This language clearly mirrors that of the creation story. So, to consistently apply the hermeneutic we must acknowledge that Genesis 1 is not about creation, but rather, the story of God stumbling upon a world, and creating covenant with Adam. Further, we need to localize the judgment of the flood. Judgments (as we know from 70ad) are not actually over the whole world, but only a small, select group of people. 2. In understanding revelation 19-21 there is a vital piece of text that states Satan will join the beast and false prophet (Revelation 20:10 And the devil, who deceived them, was thrown into the lake of burning sulfur, where the beast and the false prophet had been thrown). So this has a large implication over the 1000 years. The 1000 years is likely not literal, but during the 1000 years Satan is bound, until the brief time that he is loosed. Then he finally he joins the beast and the false prophet after the 1000 years. This creates a struggle, because Satan cannot join the beast and the false prophet, until the end of the 1000 years, where he was bound, and then loosed for a short time.

Full preterists hold to an idea of Salvation accomplished in 30 AD and salvation applied in 70 AD. My question is, if salvation (the resurrection - which is synonymous with receiving the holy spirit) was not possible until 70 AD, how did the apostles and early church experience salvation?

Revelation is apocalyptic language and is often interpreted as the most difficult book of the bible to understand. However, I find there are valuable details that should inform our understanding of eschatology. For example, Revelation 20:4-5 states: >**4** I saw thrones on which were seated those who had been given authority to judge. And I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded because of their testimony about Jesus and because of the word of God. They had not worshiped the beast or its image and had not received its mark on their foreheads or their hands. They came to life and reigned with Christ a thousand years. **5** (The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended.) This is the first resurrection. While this text includes language that should not be taken literally (like the 1000 years often meaning "a very long period of time" in the Hebrew culture of the time), this still informs us of two things: 1. There **must** be a resurrection that kicks off the millennial kingdom, as those resurrected individuals must reign during the millennium. 2. This resurrection is made up of those who have lost their life due to their testimony of Christ. I understand that Full Preterists claim the millennial kingdom began in 30 AD. However, I do not understand how they interpret the first resurrection of those who died for their testimony of Christ (no one had yet died for their testimony of Christ). I believe 1 Thessalonians 4:16 further addresses this issue: >For the Lord himself will come down from heaven, with a loud command, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet call of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. I've heard the argument that the first resurrection is the resurrection of our spiritually dead souls to the life of salvation, but both Revelation 20 and 1 Thessalonians 4 allude to the "dead in Christ". If we are speaking of spiritual death, then we must assume you can be spiritually dead (unsaved) in Christ.

Full preterists believe that the last trumpet call took place in AD 70. A very elaborate presentation of this view can be found in Gina's [answer](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/a/83399/50422) in one of my previous [questions](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/83071/50422) . A quote from the answer below (with emphasis mine): > [...] The corruptible earthly temple worship also had to put on the incorruptible and be transformed into the pure and perfect temple of our Lord and Savior. **And, it happened when that earthly temple was taken out of the way in AD 70**. > > **The last trumpet call for Jerusalem took place in AD 70 at the hands of the Roman army**. But, there is a last trumpet call for each individual at our own bodily death, & that trumpet call signals either our gathering into heaven, or our judgment. Did the early Church believe the same? Did most early Christians turn into full preterists after the events of AD 70? What were the eschatological views of the early Church towards the end of the first century? Did the early Church's views on eschatology change or remain the same in the centuries that followed?

> KJV 2Th 2:1  Now we beseech you, brethren, by the coming of our Lord > Jesus Christ, and by our gathering together unto him,  2Th 2:2  That > ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor > by word, nor by letter as from us, as **that the day of Christ is at > hand**.  2Th 2:3  Let no man deceive you by any means: for **that day > shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man > of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;  2Th 2:4  Who opposeth and > exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; > so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that > he is God.**  2Th 2:5  Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, > I told you these things?  2Th 2:6  And now ye know what withholdeth > that he might be revealed in his time.  2Th 2:7  For **the mystery of > iniquity doth already work**: only he who now letteth will let, until > he be taken out of the way.  2Th 2:8  And **then shall that Wicked be > revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, > and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming:**  2Th 2:9  Even > him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and > signs and lying wonders,  2Th 2:10  And with all deceivableness of > unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the > love of the truth, that they might be saved.

>**1 Corinthians 15:22-25** (ESV) For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive. But each in his own order: Christ the firstfruits, then at his coming those who belong to Christ. Then comes the end, when **he delivers the kingdom to God the Father** after destroying every rule and every authority and power. For he must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. I assume this refers to when Christ destroyed death, the last enemy, which is in the past. So do Preterists say that after A.D. 70 "the end" came and Jesus ceased to reign so that God might be all in all?

1 Corinthians 13:8-12 (ESV): > 8 Love never ends. **As for prophecies, they will pass away; as for tongues, they will cease; as for knowledge, it will pass away**. 9 **For we know in part and we prophesy in part**, 10 **but when the perfect comes, the partial will pass away**. 11 When I was a child, I spoke like a child, I thought like a child, I reasoned like a child. When I became a man, I gave up childish ways. 12 For now we see in a mirror dimly, but then face to face. **Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I have been fully known**. Do Full Preterists believe that the perfect came and, therefore, that the gifts of the Spirit ceased in A.D. 70? If so, how do they explain post A.D. 70 reports of manifestations of the gifts of the Spirit?

Matthew 24:36-44 (ESV): > 36 “But concerning that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only. 37 **For as were the days of Noah, so will be the coming of the Son of Man**. 38 For as in those days **before the flood** they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day when Noah entered the ark, 39 **and they were unaware until the flood came and swept them all away, so will be the coming of the Son of Man**. 40 Then two men will be in the field; one will be taken and one left. 41 Two women will be grinding at the mill; one will be taken and one left. 42 Therefore, stay awake, for you do not know on what day your Lord is coming. 43 But know this, that if the master of the house had known in what part of the night the thief was coming, he would have stayed awake and would not have let his house be broken into. 44 Therefore you also must be ready, for the Son of Man is coming at an hour you do not expect. My personal view is that Noah's flood was a literal, worldwide cataclysmic event that wiped out all life on earth, with the exception of what was kept safe inside the ark. At least that's the impression I get from reading the Genesis account, and many share the same view. Moreover, in Matthew 24:36-44 (quoted above) Jesus himself appears to believe that Noah's flood was an actual event and refers to it to draw an analogy with his own second coming. This leads me to think that the second coming of Christ should be an extraordinary worldwide event too, that everyone would notice, and since nothing like that has ever happened (that I'm aware of), this means that the second coming hasn't happened yet. Having said that, Full Preterists believe the opposite, that the parousia already took place (in A.D. 70), which means that there must be something wrong in my reasoning from their perspective. **Questions** - What is the Full Preterist view on Noah's flood? - How do Full Preterists interpret Jesus' analogy between Noah's flood and his return? ________________________ Related question on BH.SE: [Is Jesus implying that his second coming will be a literal, extraordinary worldwide event akin to Noah's flood? Matthew 24:36-44](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/62776/is-jesus-implying-that-his-second-coming-will-be-a-literal-extraordinary-worldw)

Many preterists (full or partial) hold to the two-age model of eschatology (the Jewish age ended in 70 A.D., ushering in the Gentile age). How do preterists reconcile this perspective with Jesus' promise in Matthew 28:20 that He will be with Christians "all the days until the completion of the age" (literal translation). Does that mean that Jesus is no longer with us since the age to which He was referring has ended from a preterist perspective?

2 Thessalonians 2:1-12 (ESV): > Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, 2 not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed, either by a spirit or a spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. 3 Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, 4 who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God. 5 Do you not remember that when I was still with you I told you these things? 6 And you know what is restraining him now so that he may be revealed in his time. 7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work. Only he who now restrains it will do so until he is out of the way. 8 And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will kill with the breath of his mouth and bring to nothing by the appearance of his coming. 9 **The coming of the lawless one is by the activity of Satan with all power and false signs and wonders**, 10 and with all wicked deception for those who are perishing, because they refused to love the truth and so be saved. 11 Therefore God sends them a strong delusion, so that they may believe what is false, 12 in order that all may be condemned who did not believe the truth but had pleasure in unrighteousness. According to Full Preterists, what historical facts fulfilled the false signs and wonders prophesied by the apostle Paul in 2 Thessalonians 2:9? _______ Relevant related question on Hermeneutics: [What signs and wonders are performed by whom? 2 Thessalonians 2:9-10](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/62523/what-signs-and-wonders-are-performed-by-whom-2-thessalonians-29-10) .

Some hold that the Old & New Covenants were simultaneously operative and efficacious between the death of Christ and the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70. How do those who hold this view understand Paul's declaration that there is "one Lord, one faith, one baptism"? (Ephesians 4:5) Would the simultaneous availability of both covenants contradict Paul's statement? *** Inspired by discussion on this post I am assuming here that Paul is the author of Ephesians and that therefore Ephesians was written pre-70. For a more thorough exposition of this view see chapter 3 here . I understand that some may answer this question by indicating that they do not accept the authenticity of Ephesians--this would resolve the apparent contradiction but would not directly address my specific question.

As I understand, Full Preterism holds that **all** end time prophesies were fulfilled at the destruction of Jerusalem. 2 Peter chapter 3 appears to provide an end time prophesy wherein the heavens, down to an elemental level, will burn up and then be re-made: > The Lord is not slow to fulfill his promise as some count slowness, but is patient toward you, not wishing that any should perish, but that all should reach repentance. But the day of the Lord will come like a thief, and then **the heavens will pass away with a roar, and the heavenly bodies will be burned up and dissolved**, and the earth and the works that are done on it will be exposed. Since all these things are thus to be dissolved, what sort of people ought you to be in lives of holiness and godliness, waiting for and hastening the coming of the day of God, **because of which the heavens will be set on fire and dissolved, and the heavenly bodies will melt as they burn**! But according to his promise we are waiting for new heavens and a new earth in which righteousness dwells. - 2 Peter 3:9-13 According to Full Preterism, in what way has this prophesy been fulfilled when Jerusalem was destroyed?

Different passages in the Bible shed light on the events that would unfold at the signal of the last trumpet call: 1 Corinthians 15:50-58 (ESV): > 50 I tell you this, brothers: flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God, nor does the perishable inherit the imperishable. 51 **Behold! I tell you a mystery**. We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, 52 **in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trumpet**. **For the trumpet will sound**, and the dead will be raised imperishable, and we shall be changed. 53 For this perishable body must put on the imperishable, and this mortal body must put on immortality. 54 When the perishable puts on the imperishable, and the mortal puts on immortality, then shall come to pass the saying that is written: > > “Death is swallowed up in victory.” 55 “O death, where is your victory? O death, where is your sting?” > > 56 The sting of death is sin, and the power of sin is the law. 57 But thanks be to God, who gives us the victory through our Lord Jesus Christ. > > 58 Therefore, my beloved brothers, be steadfast, immovable, always abounding in the work of the Lord, knowing that in the Lord your labor is not in vain. 1 Thessalonians 4:13-18 (ESV): > 13 But we do not want you to be uninformed, brothers, about those who are asleep, that you may not grieve as others do who have no hope. 14 For since we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so, through Jesus, God will bring with him those who have fallen asleep. 15 For this we declare to you by a word from the Lord, that we who are alive, who are left until the coming of the Lord, will not precede those who have fallen asleep. 16 For the **Lord himself will descend from heaven with a cry of command, with the voice of an archangel, and with the sound of the trumpet of God**. And the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 Then we who are alive, who are left, will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and so we will always be with the Lord. 18 Therefore encourage one another with these words. Matthew 24:29-31 (ESV): > 29 “Immediately after the tribulation of those days the sun will be darkened, and the moon will not give its light, and the stars will fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens will be shaken. 30 **Then will appear in heaven the sign of the Son of Man, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the Son of Man coming on the clouds of heaven with power and great glory**. 31 And he will send out his angels **with a loud trumpet call**, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other. Revelations 1:7-10 (ESV): > 7 **Behold, he is coming with the clouds, and every eye will see him**, even those who pierced him, and all tribes of the earth will wail[b] on account of him. Even so. Amen. 8 “I am the Alpha and the Omega,” says the Lord God, “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.” 9 I, John, your brother and partner in the tribulation and the kingdom and the patient endurance that are in Jesus, was on the island called Patmos on account of the word of God and the testimony of Jesus. 10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord's day, **and I heard behind me a loud voice like a trumpet** __________________ These passages can be summarized as a list of events that would take place at the signal of the last trumpet call. The list below is courtesy of @Dottard's [answer to a question](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/59717/38524) on the hermeneutics site: 1. It signals the resurrection of the dead 2. It is the time when Jesus gathers all the elect from the entire earth 3. The resurrection will mean that the righteous will get imperishable bodies 4. The righteous are resurrected and meet the Lord in the air along with the living righteous 5. This occurs when the Son of Man appears "on the clouds of heaven, with power and great glory" (Matt 24:30) 6. This follows some other dramatic events such as the darkening of the sun and moon and falling stars (Matt 24:29). Compare Rev 6:12-14. 7. According to Rev 1:7, when the Son of Man comes in the clouds, "every eye will see him" - made possible by the resurrection. __________________ **Question**: According to full preterists, when and where did the last trumpet call take place? What is the historical basis for viewing the last trumpet call and associated events as historical facts that have already been fulfilled?

In some passages from the Bible there exists sentences such as: Revelation 12:9 > The great dragon was hurled down—that ancient serpent called the devil, or Satan, who leads the whole world astray. He was hurled to the earth, and his angels with him. and Revelation 13:4 > People worshiped the dragon because he had given authority to the beast, and they also worshiped the beast and asked, “Who is like the beast? Who can wage war against it?" Since I am assuming that 'Satan', 'the beast', etc are the same entity then Who is 'the dragon' and what are the differences between 'the dragon' and 'the beast'?

A full preterist is someone who believes that all the prophecies in the Bible have been fulfilled. Then in Revelation 20:4 (RSV-2CE): >Then I saw thrones, and seated on them were those to whom judgement was committed. Also I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded for their testimony to Jesus and for the word of God, and who had not worshiped the beast or its image and had not received its mark on their foreheads or their hands. **They came to life, and reigned with Christ a thousand years.** How does a full preterist interpret the Thousand-year reign of Christ?

Since Preterism teaches that the son of man has already come is it safe to infer that they also consider "the Lord's Supper" to be obsolete as well?: >[1Co 11:26 CSB] 26 For as often as you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord's death **until he comes**.

Under the preterist view that all of John’s writings we're completed prior to the fall of Jerusalem in 70 AD, where would they be placed chronologically in the New Testament canon?