My history is pretty weak, I wanted to understand the difference between these two groups; are bani israel same as the jews currently living in Israel(Palestine)? Are they descendants of bani israel? Anyway related to bani israel, other than being jews?

According to Qur'an, Allah gave many special favours to Bani Israel. In what way did he favour them? What was the reason for this? How is different from the prophets he sent to the rest of mankind that we don't know the names of? Also, given the above, why would Muhammad (peace) not be sent to the people Allah had already given so much to given the importance of Muhammad above all prophets? (Here the Christian claims that Israel was specifically chosen and prepared for the saving work which could then after Jesus be spread to the rest of mankind who never received the call to God. What is Islamic response to this?)

I am not a Muslim. In discussions about Israel/Palestine with Muslims online, a number of them have referenced a "rule of 80" in connection with Israel. From the context of the discussions, it seemed to be that they were saying that Israel would last only 80 years. Does anyone know the source of this "rule of 80"? Is there any authority for interpreting this source as applying to the modern state of Israel?

I am a freelancer and working with people from all over the world is common for me. But whenever I receive an offer from a client residing in **Israel/France**, I find myself standing in a complete confusion whether to work with them or not. Unfortunately I could not find a clear cut answer for this so posting it here now with high hopes. So the thing is I am aware I should not do the work with anybody if it involves anything anti-islamic like Betting, Winery etc but in most of the cases, work involved is all good but then I think Israel is an illegal oppressive state and they would get taxes from that client I would work with. So indirectly some of that money is gonna get used against Muslims. Same is the case with France, they promote Islamophobia at a state level and do other blasphemic contests as well. So a French person's tax is gonna get used by their Govt in in that regard too. So wouldn't it be Haram to get involved with such people and work? I understand somebody may think that this logic makes working Haram with US citizens as well because they launch anti-muslim activities too but the thing (I think) is US does not do it openly. Those are their secret missions or what so ever. But France and Israel do it openly and back such anti-islamic activities publicly. Share your valuable thoughts please.

Now that war is going on in the middle east, whole over the world people across religion, caste and creed are praying for the children killed in the war. But no one seems to pray for the killers, that is Israeli Army. We know the fate of children killed in war, they are guarenteed to be in Paradise as they never did any sin. But what about those who are doing the killings, that is the Israeli Army. I feel pity for them as I think their fate is Hell, if they do not repent. So can I pray for the Israeli Army, So that they are guided to truth, at least to what is mentioned in Old testament ? My question is specific to Israeli Army, so the other questions do not answer my question.

It is common knowledge that Islam considers the Hebrew bible to be the Holy word of God. I would therefore like to know if Muslims ever refer to Allah as אֱלֹהֵי יִשְׂרָאֵל - "The God of Israel", which is how He refers to Himself over 190 times in Tanach? If not, why not? If yes, what does it mean in Islam? ---------- Note: this is an honest **religious** question aimed at deepened understanding of Islam, **not** a political one.

> So We removed them from gardens and springs, and treasures and > honorable station. Thus. And We caused to inherit it the Children of > Israel. ([Ash-Shu'ara \[26\] : 57-59][1] ) > How much they left behind of gardens and springs. And crops and noble sites. And comfort wherein they were amused. Thus. And We caused to inherit it another people. ([Ad-Dukhan : 25-28](https://quran.com/44/25-28)) It says here that the sons of Israel received the Egyptian lands. But they came out of Egypt and went to Canaan. So how could they get these lands? > And We took the Children of Israel across the sea; then they came upon > a people intent in devotion to [some] idols of theirs. They [the > Children of Israel] said, "O Moses, make for us a god just as they > have gods." He said, "Indeed, you are a people behaving ignorantly. > ([Al-A'raf \[7\] : 138][2] )

The Qur'an says that Saul was sent to Israel as a king. But was he just the king and commander or also a prophet??

I know that all Jews are Bani Israel but not all Bani Israel are Jews. Are Christians Bani Israel as well, do they descend from Prophet Israel (AS)? This is not a duplicate, the answer to this question is not in any of the other articles, I want to know if Christians are also Bani Israel, I'm not asking about the difference between Jews and Bani Israel. Just please answer this question it's not a duplicate

According to Ahmad Adwan's recent explanation of Sura 5, it appears that the Qur'an designates Israel as the land of the Jews and that until Judgement day, is not to be touched. Is this an accurate explanation (and if not, how so)? Source for Ahmad Adwan's explanation: www.alquds.co.uk

I think I found another prophecy of Muhammad (pbuh) in Isaiah 40. Chapter 40 of the Book of Isaiah (from the Hebrew Bible) is called "Comfort for God's People". It starts like this: Comfort, comfort my people, says your God. Speak tenderly to Jerusalem, and proclaim to her that her hard service has been completed, that her sin has been paid for, that she has received from the Lord’s hand double for all her sins. The Greek translation of these verses are: parakaleíte parakaleíte tón laón mou légei o theós iereís lalísate eis tín kardían Ierousalim parakalésate aftín óti eplísthi i tapeínosis aftís lélytai aftís i amartía óti edéxato ek cheirós kyríou diplá tá amartímata aftís I'm sure you've noticed that "Comfort" translates to "Parakaleíte" in Greek. And according to John 16:7, Jesus (pbuh) said: "Nevertheless, I tell you the truth; it is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart, I will send him unto you" Now there are 2 things to consider here: 1) Jesus said "**the** Comforter", not "a Comforter". This means that it is a Comforter that the people of Israel already knew about (from Isaiah 40) 2) In the Greek translation of this verse, "the Comforter" is translated to "Paracletos". This word is similar to "Parakaleíte" from Isaiah 40. 3) The verse says that the Comforter will come only after Jesus (pbuh) goes away So Isaiah 40 could be talking about Muhammad (pbuh). **But my question is, did Muhammad (pbuh) ever go to Jerusalem to spread the word of Allah?** Because Isaiah 40 is telling this "Comforter" to "*bring the good news to Jerusalem*" and *say to the towns of Judah "Here is your God!"* (verse 9). Here's the link to Isaiah 40: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Isaiah+40 Here's the link to the Greek translation of Isaiah 40: https://www.blueletterbible.org/lxx/isa/40/1/s_719001

I read in some different surahs of Quran mentioning the superiority of bani-Israeli over all beings. What is true interpretation of these verses? > يَا بَنِي إِسْرَ‌ائِيلَ اذْكُرُ‌وا نِعْمَتِيَ الَّتِي أَنْعَمْتُ > عَلَيْكُمْ وَأَنِّي فَضَّلْتُكُمْ عَلَى الْعَالَمِينَ > > Children of Israel, remember My blessing wherewith I blessed you, and that I have preferred you above all beings; [Surah al-Baqarah Verse 47](http://quran.com/2/47)

>وَإِذْ قَالَ مُوسَىٰ لِقَوْمِهِ يَا قَوْمِ إِنَّكُمْ ظَلَمْتُمْ أَنفُسَكُم بِاتِّخَاذِكُمُ الْعِجْلَ فَتُوبُوا إِلَىٰ بَارِئِكُمْ فَاقْتُلُوا أَنفُسَكُمْ ذَٰلِكُمْ خَيْرٌ لَّكُمْ عِندَ بَارِئِكُمْ فَتَابَ عَلَيْكُمْ ۚ إِنَّهُ هُوَ التَّوَّابُ الرَّحِيمُ And [recall] when Moses said to his people, "O my people, indeed you have wronged yourselves by your taking of the calf [for worship]. So repent to your Creator and kill yourselves. That is best for [all of] you in the sight of your Creator." Then He accepted your repentance; indeed, He is the Accepting of repentance, the Merciful. 2:54 From reading this I understood that Allah called those disbelievers to kill themselves? Two verses later >ثُمَّ بَعَثْنَاكُم مِّن بَعْدِ مَوْتِكُمْ لَعَلَّكُمْ تَشْكُرُونَ Then We revived you after your death that perhaps you would be grateful. 2:56 Could someone please explain me what is happening here? Thank you.

I have been informed of a large body of Bani Israil (children of Israel) in west Africa that were well recorded by Muslim historians and chroniclers. According to the Tarikh al sudan and the Tarikh al fatash there was a great many Bani Israil in west Africa and many other historians also state the many Bani Israil migrated south into Africa after the Roman judaen war of 70 ad and that many Judaen communities who lived in Egypt and Libya migrated deeper into the interior of Africa. Many Muslim scholars have told me that the European Ashkenazi jews living in Israel today are not descendants of the Bani Israil but that the European Jews are descendants of Khazar converts whom converted to Talmudic Judaism around the 800 ad. Also an Israeli geneticist Dr. Eran Elhaik has confirmed the "khazar theory" with over an 11year DNA research of the Ashkenazi Jewish DNA and origins and his findings confirm their Khazar origins. The "khazar theory" has also been confirmed by another Israeli scientist Dr Ariella Oppenheim. I have been told by Muslim scholars that the so called Negroes in America are descendants of the jews of Bilad al Sudan and were taken as slaves out of Africa and therefore the Negroes are Bani Israil but became disconnected from their heritage through slavery. Interestingly majority of the so called African Americans are for the most part from the IBO (Igbo) people and the IBO people of west Africa have been traced to the Israelite tribes of Gad, Zebulon, Manasseh Ephraim and Judah. There are many Rabbi's and the state of Israel showing interest in them and studying them. There is a documentary on the subject. Several editions of the Encyclopaedia Britannica in 1929 connect the Igbo people to Gad. A Torah commentary on Sh’mot in 1922 made the Igbo-Gad connection also. This has also been put forward by Christians as well. Anglican Missionary G.T. Basden, the first to minister to the Igbo wrote many books which claimed and connected the Igbos to the tribes of Israel. Are the Negroes that were taken out of west Africa into slavery descendants of the jews of bilad al Sudan and are bani Israil? Do any Islamic scholars have answers about this?

Some verses of Quran use the word یهود (Jews), while other use بنی اسرائیل (Children of Israeel). Apparently they seem to be pointing to the same group of people. But God does not do say anything without a purpose and indeed they should be some difference. So what are the differences between these two group of people? There are many verses that use both the terms. And they can be found here: Verses containing "Jews" (8 verses) Verses containing "Bani Israeel" (40 verses)

In Islam, Ahlul al-Kitaab have a special, protected status. For example, a Muslim man may marry a Jewish or Christian woman. Because of this, it is relevant to determine who is a Jew or a Christian. It is easy to determine who is a Christian because anyone who professes a belief that Jesus is the divine son of God is accepted as a Christian. The same is not true, however, for Jews. It takes more to convert to Judaism (according to Jews) than simply professing a belief in Judaism. There is a whole long process, and the question of who is considered a Jew is controversial even among Jews themselves. For example, a [Reform](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reform_Judaism) conversion would not be accepted as valid by [Orthodox](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orthodox_Judaism) Jews. So according to the Orthodox Jews, someone who had a Reform Jewish conversion is not Jewish at all! So, for the purposes of the special protections granted to Jews and Christians, who is considered to be Jewish by Muslim doctrine? Is it anybody who professes belief in Judaism? Anyone who has had an Orthodox conversion? Maybe Reform conversions are ok? Perhaps only someone who is a descendent of the Jews who escaped Egypt and who has no conversions in his family is Jewish?

I understand the view Muslims have of Christians where they associate Jesus as a partner with Allah. I am unsure why Jews would be considered in the same situation as Christians as I thought they associated no partners with Allah, so why would they still not be considered people of the book? > Say: "O People of the Book! come to common terms as between us and > you: That we worship none but Allah; that we associate no partners > with him; that we erect not, from among ourselves, Lords and patrons > other than Allah." If then they turn back, say ye: "Bear witness that > we (at least) are Muslims (bowing to Allah's Will).(Aal-Emran:64)

I have seen ancient depictions of the ancient Israelites and there features were different than I expected. Linguistic experts have stated that hebrew is one of the early Asiatic-African languages. The hamitic people were a dark skinned people, Noah's wife was hamitic, moses' wife was hamitic, the ancient Israelites mixed with hamitic egyptians for centuries before exodus. In Acts 21:37-38 the soldier mistakenly took Paul for a hamitic egyptian. How could the soldier mistake Paul for an egyptian unless the ancient Israelites were of a darker skin tone? Also in Exodus 2:16-19 Moses was mistaken for a Hamitic Egyptian. If Moses was not physically identical to hamitic people how could he have also been mistaken for a Hamitic egyptian? The egyptians of today are not the original ancient egyptian but are of persian, arabic and turkish stock, the orginal egyptians were a Hamitic dark skinned people who were conquered and exiled durring the Islamic conquest. I have been told by some muslim scholars that the jews that muhammed (peace be upon him) offered the Quran to were dark skinned people and that the jews of today are not the original hebrews (jews) but that the jews of today are the descendants of converts from around the year of 800 a.d and are khazarians to be exact not bloodline original jews that muhammad pbuh spoke to about Quran. Is there any Early muslim references to the physical identity of the ancient Israelites? or do any muslim historians know anything concerning this?