Does Fatawa-e-Alamgiri imply that a man is not punished for forceful relations with a slave-girl if she has committed a crime against him?

Could anyone please explain this to me? Does it mean if the man then forcefully has sex with her, he won't be punished? Or only in terms of consentual? Is this authentic? > “If a person’s slave-girl commits a deliberate crime against some > other person, then the person who has suffered the crime commits > adultery with her, he is not subject to any legal penalty."