When our family prays the Lord’s Prayer we have always used, “forgive us our *debts*” instead of “*trespasses*”. This is because the first Bible I attained used the word. (KJV) Our family has no denomination and as such are unsure as to how others pray the Lord’s Prayer. Which Christians are likely to use one or the other?

In the Lord’s Prayer, we see these words: > and forgive us our debts, > as we also have forgiven our debtors. (Matthew 6:12, ESV) Among the views on how to understand Matthew 6:12 are: - **Conditional View**: Direct correlation. God's forgiveness is contingent upon our prior or simultaneous forgiveness of others. - **Consequential View**: Our forgiveness of others is a result or evidence of God's forgiveness working in our lives. Experiencing God's grace empowers us to extend grace to others. - **Relational View**: The two acts of forgiveness are parallel and interconnected, not strictly conditional. Emphasizes the relational aspect. God's forgiveness restores our relationship with him, and our forgiveness of others restores our relationships with them. I would like an overview of: - Which denominations lean toward each view - Which Prominent theologians endorse each If possible, include quotes from confessions or theologians that show that they hold that view. If there are other important and different ways to look at this verse, include them as well. Note: This is related to a previous question on Luther’s view: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/97180/how-do-lutheran-discern-law-and-gospel-in-the-lords-prayer **Example: John Calvin** As an example, here is a quote from John Calvin, suggesting the Consequential View: > *As we forgive our debtors…* This condition is added, that no one may > presume to approach God and ask forgiveness, who is not pure and free > from all resentment. **And yet the forgiveness, which we ask that God > would give us, does not depend on the forgiveness which we grant to > others:** but the design of Christ was, to exhort us, in this manner, to > forgive the offenses which have been committed against us, and at the > same time, to give, as it were, the impression of his seal, to ratify > the confidence in our own forgiveness. Nor is any thing inconsistent > with this in the phrase used by Luke, καὶ γὰρ, for we also Christ did > not intend to point out the cause, but only to remind us of the > feelings which we ought to cherish towards brethren, when we desire to > be reconciled to God. And certainly, if the Spirit of God reigns in > our hearts, every description of ill-will and revenge ought to be > banished. The Spirit is the witness of our adoption, (Romans 8:16 ,) > and therefore this is put down simply as a mark, to distinguish the > children of God from strangers. The name debtors is here given, not to > those who owe us money, or any other service, but to those who are > indebted to us on account of offenses which they have committed. - John Calvin (1509-1564) *Commentary on Matthew, Mark, Luke - Volume 1* https://www.lords-prayer-words.com/commentary/john_calvin_matthew_6_12.html

When the disciples asked Jesus to teach them how to pray, He gave them this model commonly known as the Lord's Prayer. > Pray then like this: “Our Father in heaven, hallowed be your name. Your kingdom come, your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven. Give us this day our daily bread, **and forgive us our debts, as we also have forgiven our debtors.** And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil. Mathew 6:9-13 ESV In it, we are to ask God to forgive our debts "as we also have forgiven our debtors". The parallel passage in Luke is similar, but specifically mentions forgiveness of sins: > And he said to them, “When you pray, say: “Father, hallowed be your name. Your kingdom come. Give us each day our daily bread, **and forgive us our sins, for we ourselves forgive everyone who is indebted to us.** And lead us not into temptation.” Luke 11:2-4 ESV I was discussing this with a couple friends last night, and one of them mentioned that we do not really want God to forgive us in the same manner that we forgive others, as that would be a much weaker, incomplete forgiveness. In fact, we would much rather pray, **"Father forgive us completely--wholly unlike how I am even able to forgive others."** I understand that we are encouraged to forgive others as completely as we can, but I also know my weakness in doing this. So, again, why are we taught to ask God only to forgive us in the manner that we forgive others? It seems we would want a much greater level of forgiveness--the kind of forgiveness that only God can give.

For those who beleive in the doctrine of **O**nce **S**aved **A**lways **S**aved (OSAS). How does one reconcile our need to not only confess our sins, but to ask God for forgiveness for those sins? > Forgive us our trespasses as we forgive those who trespass against us Some might say that in Mathew 6 the word should be translated as "debts" which are not necessarily "sins." Yet the parallel passage in Luke 11 uses the word "ἁμαρτία" which clearly speaks of sin. Question: If we have received forgiveness in full, and it is completed as many would suggest, why would the Lord have us petition (Pray) for our forgiveness when it has already, according to the OSAS doctrine, been freely given and can never be taken away? This question are for the Faith Practices that adhere to 'assurance of salvation' which includes most but not all the ecclesial bodies that broke and continue to break away from the Catholic Church.

Not necessarily 1st century Galilean Aramaic, it can be the Imperial Aramaic used for parts of the book of Daniel, or the Targumic Aramaic used in the interpretive Jewish translations of Scripture. But when does the first publication of a Lord's prayer translation in a distinctively Jewish (as opposed to Syriac) Aramaic dialect date back to, and what is the text? I'm looking for it in Hebrew (square) letters with nikkud/vowel points

In the Lord's Prayer, Jesus famously says: Matthew 6:12 NMB > And forgive us our trespasses, as we forgive those who trespass against us. This seems to be a *law* thing, as it means "unless you forgive, you will not be forgiven". How is it then, that Lutherans (or other Evangelical/Protestant Churches) understand this in a *Gospel* sense, where this becomes a promise telling us "forgive because you too have been forgiven", as Luther says in the Small Catechism .

In the famous [Fatima prayer](http://www.fatimacentennial.com/fatima-prayers) we say "My Jesus". The Decade prayer: > "O My Jesus, forgive us our sins, save us from the fires of hell. Lead all souls to Heaven, especially those most in need of Thy mercy. Amen." But in the Lord's prayer we say "Our Father". It seems that we should use **my** when talking to Jesus but **our** when talking to the Father. Why do we say "my Jesus" and then "our Father"?

Disclaimer: I understand that there is no monolithic Protestant belief on any topic except a protestation of the Catholic Church. That being said - I would appreciate it if this answer contained some attempt to get as close as possible to stating the general "protestant orthodoxy" or "protestant consensus" no matter how contradictory those terms may be. In Matthew chapter 6 verses 9-13 our Lord instructs all Christians to pray as such: > 9 Thus therefore shall you pray: Our Father who art in heaven, hallowed be thy name. > > 10 Thy kingdom come. Thy will be done on earth as it is in heaven. > > 11 Give us this day our daily bread. > > 12 And forgive us our debts, as we also forgive our debtors. > > 13 And lead us not into temptation. But deliver us from evil. Amen. As a Catholic I interpret verse 11 to be referring (at least tangentially) to the Holy Eucharist. Do Protestants interpret this to be a literal request for a daily slice of bread? If they see this as a reference to their form of symbolic "communion", why do they not all offer "communion" daily?

In my local community's Bible study last night I was surprised that the RSV's rendition of the Lord's Prayer did not include the phrase usually rendered as "for thine is the Kingdom and the Power and the Glory, for ever, Amen." Instead, the RSV indicates that only "some" early manuscripts include this part of the prayer. So the prayer in the RSV of Matt. 6 reads: "9 Our Father who art in heaven, Hallowed be thy name. 10 Thy kingdom come, Thy will be done, On earth as it is in heaven. 11 Give us this day our daily bread;[a] 12 And forgive us our debts, As we also have forgiven our debtors; 13 And lead us not into temptation, But deliver us from evil.[b]" The footnote [b] reads: *Or the evil one. Other authorities, some ancient, add, in some form, For thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory, for ever. Amen.* Here is a link that shows how [various translators](https://www.biblegateway.com/verse/en/Matthew%206:13) handle Matthew 6:13. Click on the specific translation to see any added footnotes. I am wondering which if any churches have updated their liturgical tradition based on modern textual criticism of this text. Or, more practically, which churches no longer include the phrase about God's Kingdom, Power and Glory in the Lord's prayer? (Answers from any tradition welcome, as well as survey answers if available.) https://www.biblegateway.com/verse/en/Matthew%206:13

In the Lord's Prayer (Matthew 6) Jesus Christ teaches His disciples how to pray and encourages them to "Forgive the Debt of Others" if they want "Their Own Debt to be Forgiven". Why would Jesus encourage His disciples to do this, if His own death will atone for **all** sins / debts: Past, Present, and Future? I welcome answers from all denominations. **Note**: When I said that I am interested in answers from all denominations, I meant what I said, which is to say that I am interested in the way each denomination values the importance of forgiving others.

WE read in Proverbs 30: 7-9 (NRSVCE): >Two things I ask of you; do not deny them to me before I die: Remove far from me falsehood and lying; give me neither poverty nor riches; feed me with the food that I need, or I shall be full, and deny you, and say, “Who is the Lord?” or I shall be poor, and steal, and profane the name of my God. It is possible that Jesus adopted, with suitable adaptation, the fourth petition in The Lord's Prayer from Proverbs 30. The deeper meaning of `Give us this day our daily [*epiousios*] bread 'has been the subject of long debates, including one on the rarity of the usage *epiousios* elsewhere. By limiting the need for physical food for the day' as if on a daily quota ' basis, Jesus wants us to steer clear of "..or I shall be full, and deny you.. " situation. Compare this with Yahweh's instruction to the Israelite to eat only the manna they had gathered for each day (Exodus 16). My question therefore is: According to Catholic scholars, is the Fourth Petition in the Lord's Prayer an adaptation of Proverbs 30: 7-9 ?

Over a period of time, one comes across versions of the Lord's Prayer each worded in a unique manner. There appears to be slight inconsistency among the texts of the Prayer one is taught in Catechism, that said during the Holy Mass and the Prayer said at home or in private. Of course, the Lord said " Pray like this" when he taught the disciples to pray (Mtt 6:9-13). A little bit of inconsistency in the Prayers said during various occasions, and by people belonging to different cultures is therefore, understandable. For instance: > Our Father in heaven Vs Abba Father in heaven > Hallowed be they name Vs Holy be your name. > Give us today our daily bread Vs Give us this day our daily bread > Forgive us our sins Vs Forgive us our trespasses > As we forgive those who sin against us Vs As we have forgiven those who sin against us > Bring us not into temptation Vs Do not let us fall into temptation > Deliver from evil Vs Deliver us from the evil one Would it not, however, be beautiful if the faithful all across the world recited the Lord's Prayer following one single unified text ? My question therefore is: Did the Catholic Church ever prescribe a single unified text of the Lord's Prayer to be said on all occasions by all the faithful ?

When I was very young, the [version](https://www.beliefnet.com/prayers/catholic/childrens-prayers/the-lords-prayer.aspx) of the Lord's Prayer that I was taught went like this: >Our Father, who art in heaven, hallowed be thy Name, thy kingdom come, thy will be done, on earth as it is in heaven. Give us this day our daily bread. And forgive us our trespasses, as we forgive those who trespass against us. And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil. For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever and ever. Amen. Also, when reciting the Lord's Prayer amongst others, this is the version that I've heard used. I've also heard this version used in TV shows, movies, etc... I was recently reading through the NIV translation of Mathew 6 and noticed that the version of the Lord's Prayer used there is different from the one I knew, so I checked some other prominent versions and wasn't able to match them with the version that I had learned. **Which translation of the bible does this version of the Lord's Prayer come from?**

Matthew 6:9-13 Jesus instructs us: > “This, then, is how you should pray: > > “‘Our Father in heaven, hallowed be your name, your kingdom come, your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven. Give us today our daily bread. And forgive us our debts, as we also have forgiven our debtors. **And lead us not into temptation**, but deliver us from the evil one.’" But James 1:13-14 says: > When tempted, no one should say, “God is tempting me.” For God cannot be tempted by evil, **nor does he tempt anyone**; but each person is tempted when they are dragged away by their own evil desire and enticed. If God doesn't tempt us, why does the Lord's Prayer petition Him not to lead us into temptation?

I was recently caught off guard when encountering a version of the Lord's Prayer that has it as hallowed-by; the page goes so far as to cite Matthew 6:9-10, even as exactly none of the English versions on BibleHub translate it like that. A user on this site used this apparently novel version of the verse, as do plenty of webpages who's general purpose for doing so is to center deification/perfection Theologies. Is this simply a shoddy mistake on their part or is there something else going on here?

So, I was writing an answer to a question a few minutes ago, and I was going to smugly tell all you Protestants that your "thine is the Kingdom" doxology is so non-Biblical, it's apocryphal. Well, it is apocryphal, but if anything it's anachronistically apocryphal as no Protestant between the time of the Reformation, whenever that was, and the time of Martin Van Buren's presidency, whenever that was, would have had access to said tidbit of apocryphal lore. The problem is, it's SOOO nearly verbatim. > ...for Yours is the power and the glory for ever. [Didache Chapter 8](http://www.newadvent.org/fathers/0714.htm) as opposed to > for thine is the kingdom the power and the glory, now and forever. Catholic's have a similar doxology said during Mass, in English it's: > ...the kingdom the power and the glory are Yours now and forever and I always console myself when praying with Protestants that I'm not doing anything unTraditional in saying their doxology (any more than I am in saying trespasses instead of debts). But, how did it come about, and what, if anything does the English version of the Protestant ending to the Lord's Prayer have to do with the Didache?

Why is Matthew 6:13 different in the NIV that some other translations? NIV (the latest version, I think is 2010) > And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from the evil one. KJV > And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen. I checked the Chinese translation it also has the equivalent of "For yours is the kingdom and power and glory, for ever. Amen." So is the NIV different?

If Jesus lived a perfect life, for what was he asking forgiveness when said the Lord's prayer? What "debt" or "trespass" had he committed that he felt needed to be forgiven? If he was just giving a model prayer that only applied to the fallible mortals listening, it seems that would mean he was being insincere in prayer, or that he was asking for something from the Father he didn't really need, which seems out-of-character for him.

The question is about the words "Your will be done" (γενηθήτω τὸ θέλημά σου, [Matthew 6.10](http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A1999.01.0155%3Abook%3DMatthew%3Achapter%3D6%3Averse%3D10)) in the Lord's prayer. I do not understand the meaning of it. My faith tells me that *everything* happens according to the Lord's will anyway, so why pray asking for this to happen if I believe that this is the only thing that can ever happen in any circumstances anyway?

> But when you pray, go into your room, close the door and pray to your Father, who is unseen. Then your Father, who sees what is done in secret, will reward you. - Matthew 6:6 NIV I would like to think that 'reward' refers to answered prayers. But 'true' believers of Christ should ***know*** that God answers prayer (James 5:16), so it seems unlikely it is referring to just that. What is an overview of different interpretations of what 'reward' in this verse is referring to.