How do Bible scholars reconcile the differences between Greek and Aramaic in John 21:15-17?

John 21:15-17 recounts a powerful conversation between Jesus and Peter, where Jesus asks Peter, three times, if he loves Him. Greek has [several words for "love"](http://bit.ly/1O5C83U) . In Greek, the dialogue goes like this: - Do you love (ἀγαπάω/agape) me? - You know that I love (φιλέω/phileo) you. - Do you love (agape) me? - You know that I love (phileo) you. - Do you love (phileo) me? - You know all things. You know that I love (phileo) you. Jesus uses the word for God's love the first two times, and Peter responds with brotherly love all three. When Jesus uses "phileo" the third time, Peter seems to break down. It is indeed a very powerful interaction (as [discussed elsewhere](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/895/dialog-between-jesus-and-peter-in-john-21-whats-going-on)) ... but it only works in Greek. Aramaic is thought to be the common language between Jesus and His disciples, but Aramaic doesn't have a way to distinguish between these different types of love like Greek does. How do Bible scholars reconcile the fact that Aramaic does not have the diversity of vocabulary necessary to convey the distinction that is made in the Greek?