The second commandment in English reads (King James Version) > Thou shalt have no other gods before me. but in German it reads (Luther Bible) > Du sollst keine anderen Götter neben mir haben. This in translation means "You shall not have other Gods *beside / next to* me." The English version could be interpreted to permit other gods if they are not before but after / below God. I presume that the German text is more precise in this regard?

We have on Wikipedia, a tabular statement of the numbering systems adopted in regard to the Ten Commandments, by different traditions. One can see a telling difference in the numbering pattern. For instance, the Commandment against adultery appears at No.6 in the Augustinian division followed by Roman Catholics, Lutherans, etc. whereas it appears at No.7 in the Septuagint version followed by Eastern Orthodox and Reformed Christians. With more communication and dialogue taking place not only between various denominations , but between Christianity and other religions in the modern era, it is expedient to draw up a unified numbering of the Commandments. Has anyone ever attempted a unified numbering of Ten Commandments, applicable to all traditions and denominations?

How did God command the killing of children and woman when the commandments command us not to kill. I understand that God has right to kill who He pleases but why did he command the Israelites (humans) to kill others when thou shalt not kill

What is God's law mentioned in this article [*Asceticism Vs. Self-Denial*](https://tifwe.org/aceticism-vs-self-denial/) ? Is it referring to the Ten Commandments? I'm new to Christianity, apologies if this is a noob question 😅

Government employees of many countries are prohibited by the respective conduct rules, from taking up any employment of monetary gain, on the assumption that they are 24x7 for the Government. From the employees' perspective, many find it difficult to save enough after paying the taxes and hence resort to working outside official duty time and on holidays. Such an activity is called 'moonlighting'. If caught, the employee is liable for action under the service rules. But, one doubts if moonlighting by a Christian employee goes against any of the Ten Commandments. If it does, which is the Commandment attracted? Inputs from scholars of any denomination are welcome.

We read in 1 Kings 15:5 that King David had obeyed all the Commandments except in the case of Uriah the Hettite, during his lifetime. The circumstances leading to the death of Uriah in battle were meticulously executed by David who had coveted his wife Bathsheba against the 9th Commandment, after having slept with the married lady against the 6th Commandment. On the death of Uriah, David broke the 5th Commandment, by having consciously planned and staged the battle scene (2 Samuel 11). As such, the victims of David's sins were both Uriah and his widow Bathsheba. But the mention only of Uriah in 1 Kings 15, makes one wonder if David, in the capacity of King, was exempt from the 6th and 9th Commandments. **Question**: According to Catholic scholars, does 1 Kings 15:5 suggest that King David was exempt from following some of the Ten Commandments?

In Gen. 26:5: > Because Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my precepts and commandments, and observed my ceremonies and laws. (Douay Rheims) Abraham knew of the obligation to tithe. Noah knew what "clean animals" meant. Abel seemed to know about sacrificing animals (and firstlings). Joseph seemed to know that adultery was a grievous sin. and so forth... What were these precepts, commandments, ceremonies, and laws alluded to in Gen 26:5?? Were they written down? Are they represented in the *natural law*?

Where in the New Testament (if at all) does it say that Christians do not have to abide God’s commandments from the Old Testament?

I understand that Jesus fulfils the OT ritual laws and one's country's laws replaces the OT civil laws, leaving Catholics with only the OT moral laws plus the 10 commandments. How do Catholics determine whether a commandment is a moral law and binding? For example, ploughing with an ox and an ass in the same yoke (Deut 22:10). Is this some spiritual purity law or is this about compassion to the animals (for the ox will push harder than the ass and drag it along)? What of laws with *both* ritual *and* moral components, such as the Sabbatical year which frees slaves and annuls debts as well as forbids planting? Is there a rule or did they just discuss it in a synod?

Acts 15:29 and 21:25 carry over four requirements from the old testament to apply to gentile Christians - one of which is abstaining from sexual immorality. In Leviticus 20:18, it makes a big deal about having sex with a woman while she's on her period. > If a man lies with a woman during her menstrual period and uncovers her nakedness, he has made naked her fountain, and she has uncovered the fountain of her blood. Both of them shall be cut off from among their people. (ESV) However, Leviticus 15:24 makes it sound more like a ceremonial issue than a sexual immorality issue (which in that case may be a requirement which has passed away under the new covenant). > And if any man lies with her and her menstrual impurity comes upon him, he shall be unclean seven days, and every bed on which he lies shall be unclean (ESV) So the question is, does the Bible prohibit sex during menstruation between a man and his wife?

We read in Mtt 5: 27-28: >You have heard that it was said, ‘You shall not commit adultery.’ But I say to you that everyone who looks at a woman with lust has already committed adultery with her in his heart. The Ninth Commandment states: >Thou shall not covet thy neighbor's spouse. Now, adultery is the illicit relationship between two people, both having separate marital status. Going by Jesus's words in Mtt 5: 28, the Sixth Commandment has the wider connotation of treating lustful look at the neighbor's spouse , as adultery in one's heart. That in a way makes the Ninth Commandment a subset of the Sixth. Is it therefore, possible that by coveting'the Ninth Commandment refers not only to lustful wish but a proactive effort to capture' the other man's wife, as was done by David in the case of Bathsheba ? My question, therefore is: According to Catholic Church, what are the wider connotations of the Ninth Commandment ?

Reading Psalms 119, we see the following words: 1. Commandments 2. Law 3. Way 4. Testimonies 5. Precepts 6. Judgments 7. Statutes 8. Ordinances 9. Word Deut 26: 16 - 19 reads > 16 “This day the Lord your God commands you to observe these statutes > and judgments; therefore you shall be careful to observe them with all > your heart and with all your soul. 17 Today you have proclaimed the > Lord to be your God, and that you will walk in His ways and keep His > statutes, His commandments, and His judgments, and that you will obey > His voice. 18 Also today the Lord has proclaimed you to be His special > people, just as He promised you, that you should keep all His > commandments, 19 and that He will set you high above all nations which > He has made, in praise, in name, and in honor, and that you may be a > holy people to the Lord your God, just as He has spoken.” Deut 6 : 1 reads > “Now this is the commandment, and these are the statutes and judgments > which the Lord your God has commanded to teach you, that you may > observe them in the land which you are crossing over to possess, There are many other places in the Old Testament where these words appear, but I couldn't quite grasp distinctly what they mean.

We read in Lk 10: 25-28 : > Just then a lawyer stood up to test Jesus. “Teacher,” he said, “what must I do to inherit eternal life?” He said to him, “What is written in the law? What do you read there?” He answered, “You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your strength, and with all your mind; and your neighbor as yourself.” And he said to him, “You have given the right answer; do this, and you will live. We also read in Mtt 22: 35-40 : > One of them, a lawyer, asked him a question to test him. “Teacher, which commandment in the law is the greatest?” He said to him, “‘You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, and with all your soul, and with all your mind.’ This is the greatest and first commandment. And a second is like it: ‘You shall love your neighbor as yourself.’ On these two commandments hang all the law and the prophets. Let us presume that the lawyers in Luke 10 and Matthew 22 are two different individuals. The one in Luke tells Jesus the summary of the Commandments while it is Jesus who tells the lawyer in Matthew , the summary verbatim. One possibility is that the lawyer in Matthew heard the summary from Jesus and reported it to the lawyer in Luke who would later repeat it to Jesus in response to the Lord's quiz. But then, it is also possible that both the Lord and the lawyer in Mathew had a common source for the summary. But we do not find such a summary in the Old Testament in one place, even though Deut 6:5 (*You shall love the LORD your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your strength*) and Leviticus 19:18 (*… you shall love your neighbor as yourself …*) separately mention them, that too, not in the nature of essence of the Commandments. My question therefore is: **According to Catholic Church, what is the original source of summary of the 10 Commandments, which Jesus quotes in Mtt 22: 35-40?**

If you promise or swear to do something evil or sinful, do you have an obligation to fulfill that promise? I know this is probably a silly question, but it's been bothering me. My main biblical source on this that I could find is Leviticus 5:4–5: "Or if a soul swear, pronouncing with his lips to do evil, or to do good, whatsoever it be that a man shall pronounce with an oath, and it be hid from him; when he knoweth of it, then he shall be guilty in one of these. 5 And it shall be, when he shall be guilty in one of these things, that he shall confess that he hath sinned in that thing:". I think it's implied that you shouldn't fulfill an evil promise either, but I"m not sure. I'd really like some help understanding the verse and with addressing this question.

How have “love one another” and “love your neighbour” been traditionally compared or harmonized? The former occurs in the Gospel and Epistles of John, which never say “love your neighbour”. The latter is in Matthew, Mark, Luke, and James, which do not refer to “love each other”. According to John 13:34, Christ said: > A new commandment I give unto you, That ye love one another; as I have loved you, that ye also love one another. If this is a new commandment, it must encompass something different from the old commandment in Leviticus 19:18: >Thou shalt not avenge, nor bear any grudge against the children of thy people, but thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself: I am the LORD. In the early post-apostolic literature, only “love one another” appears in Second Clement, Minucius Felix, Aristides, and the Epistle of the Apostles, while the Didache, Justin Martyr, and Barnabas exclusively say “neighbour”. Both expressions are found in the Pauline Epistles, in Clement of Alexandria, and Tertullian. The two appear closely together, in adjoining sentences, only in Romans 13.8-9 and Clement’s Stromata 2.15. Complicating the issue were Polycarp, Irenaeus, and the Gospel of Thomas, who used neither expression, but say only “love your brother”. First John 2.10, 3.14, and 4.21 also say “love your brother” while other verses in the Epistle exhort “love one another”. With such a wide usage of both phrases, how have they been traditionally compared and contrasted? Do they find harmony or are they different phrases commanding different things?

Many denominations believe that Christians should obey the [ten commandments](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ten_Commandments) (also known as the decalogue), which can be found in Exodus 20:1-17. However, there are [613 commandments](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/613_commandments) in the Old Testament, not just 10. Moreover, Jesus himself claimed in Matthew 22:36-40 that the two greatest commandments **are not** part of the decalogue. In other words, Jesus endorsed the observance of two non-decalogue commandments. This makes me wonder: how many of the 603 non-decalogue commandments are still morally binding for Christians today? I know that the two greatest commandments definitely are, but are there others?

Upon reading the Bible, I have found that that Christian doctrine differs heavily from the scriptures. A few of the differences: 1. Circumcision 2. Feast days 3. Following the statutes & judgements 4. Keeping the Sabbath How is it that Christianity, which is supposed to be followers of Christ, don't seem to follow him at all? I hold the view that there is only one Christ who brought one doctrine and therefore Christianity should all be following the same teachings. Yet there are many divisions and many varying teachings.

The bible passages Exodus 20:17 > You shall not covet your neighbor’s house. You shall not covet your neighbor’s wife, or his male or female servant, his ox or donkey, or anything that belongs to your neighbor. and Deuteronomy 5:21 > You shall not covet your neighbor’s wife. You shall not set your desire on your neighbor’s house or land, his male or female servant, his ox or donkey, or anything that belongs to your neighbor. both talk about covet/desire. Also, every version of the ten commandments (at least the ones I came across) forbid in some sense the desire of your neighbor's property and/or wife. In this context, is the desire forbidden or just acting upon the desire?

God continually tells people throughout the Hebrew Bible to not turn to idolatry. Exodus 20:4: >“You shall not make for yourself a carved image, or any likeness of anything that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth." Does this mean that they should not try to understand what God "looks" like by trying to recreate an image of Him (we are finite minds, God is an infinite mind), or that they should not make such images because that would lead them to venerate nature gods? Because the Israelites do make carved images of something that is "in heaven above," namely angels (cherubim): God tells Moses to place cherubim on the Ark. So then the making of images mentioned in Exodus 20:4 (and other laws concerning idolatry) does not pertain to, for example, making an image of Jesus or making images of various Saints, because those figures are, (in the Christian sense), a continuation of the OT, and thus they are beings created "in the image of God"? What is actually meant by all this? To not make images of various things for worship because they were not created "in the image of God"? (God is above, beyond, and outside of nature, and equating God to nature images by creating what is "in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath" is offensive to God?) Because, once again, didn't God tell Moses to place Cherubim on the Ark?

We see Jesus saying at Matthew 5:18-19 : > For truly I tell you, until heaven and earth pass away, not one letter, not one stroke of a letter, will pass from the law until all is accomplished. Therefore, whoever breaks one of the least of these commandments, and teaches others to do the same, will be called least in the kingdom of heaven; but whoever does them and teaches them will be called great in the kingdom of heaven. I am interested in knowing as to what Jesus meant by `these commandments'. Did he refer to the Ten Commandments and if so, which ones are the least of the commandments, according to the Catholic Church ?