Some say that Matt 24:40-41 is referring to a Rapture with the righteous Church removed first. But Jesus said very plainly that in the end time after the tribulations the angels will come and gather the Tares from the wheat first. So if you are taken first you are a Tare and will be cast into Hell to be burned. Tares are church goers who are not saved but of the evil one. Only then are the righteous people dealt with. I can't see how people could still interpret Matthew 24:40-41 with the Rapture idea? What am I missing? How do they interpret these passages in a consistent manner? >Then two men will be in the field; one will be taken and one left. Two women will be grinding at the mill; one will be taken and one left. (Matthew 24:40-41) >As therefore the tares are gather and burned in the fire; so shall it be in the End of this World...Then shall the righteous shine forth as the sun in the kingdom of their Father. (Matthew 13:40-43)

John 17:15 >I pray NOT that thou shouldest take them out of this world, but that thou shouldest keep them from the evil. >Vs 20) Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; This prayer followed Jesus' declaration in the previous chapter of this. John 16:33 >These things have I spoken unto you, that in me ye might have peace. In the world ye shall have tribulation: but be of good cheer; I have overcome the world. How do pretrib rapture proponents interpret and reconcil these verses being compatible with their eschatology?

I have created the following end times timeline of the 7 years tribulation: **In year 1:** - Antichrist makes covenant with many for 7 years (Daniel 9:27); **From year 1 to year 3.5:** - Beginning of sorrows (wars, famines, pestilences, earthquakes etc.); **In year 3.5:** - Abomination of desolation; - The Antichrist becomes the ruler of the world; - Christians go to the wilderness; **From year 3.5 to year 7:** - The Great Tribulation; - The false prophet makes the world population to receive the mark of the beast; - The false prophet creates the image of the beast; - The false prophet makes the world population to worship the beast; - War with the saints; **In year 7:** - Rapture; Are there any End Times theorists see it playing out similar to this?

I am working on writing a blog post about the rapture and am curious about the different theories of the rapture. Could someone explain to me the Mid-Tribulation Rapture theory and show some supporting verses for it, as given by those who support this theory? I previously asked about the Pre-Tribulation theory [here](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/57792/rapture-according-to-pre-trib-theory) .

LOOKING FOR AN OVERVIEW FROM ALL CHRISTIAN POSITIONS. THANK YOU. If the *Day of the Lord* differs from the *Day of Jesus Christ* based on contextual distinctions (judgment vs. redemption), wouldn’t the same logic lend itself to suggest that titles like the *Son of Man*, *Son of God*, and *Lamb of God* refer to entirely different entities or personas? The pre-tribulational rapture perspective argues that terms like the *Day of the Lord* and the *Day of Jesus Christ* represent distinct events. From my understanding, this argument typically stems from the context of the passages within which the terms are used—the former is used in contexts of divine judgment, while the latter is associated with believers' hope and sanctification. **Day of the Lord** (1 Thessalonians 5:2-3) >”For yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so cometh as a thief in the night. For when they shall say, Peace and safety; then sudden destruction cometh upon them, as travail upon a woman with child; and they shall not escape.” **Day of Jesus Christ** (Philippians 1:6) >”Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ” Could these differing emphases simply reflect varied aspects of the same event, tailored to the audience or message being conveyed? Consider how the New Testament employs diverse titles for Jesus. **Son of Man emphasizes the humanity of Jesus** (Matthew 8:20) >” And Jesus saith unto him, The foxes have holes, and the birds of the air have nests; but the Son of man hath not where to lay his head” **Son of God highlights His divinity and unique relationship to the Father** (Matthew 16:16) >”Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God” **Lamb of God conveys His role as the sacrificial savior** (John 1:29) >” The next day John seeth Jesus coming unto him, and saith, Behold the Lamb of God, which taketh away the sin of the world” **King of Kings displays His sovereign authority over all of creation** (Revelation 17:4) >” These shall make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb shall overcome them: for he is Lord of lords, and King of kings...” This very strategy is used throughout the Old Testament as well when God is given various names which highlight various aspects of his character and deeds he has done: **Jehovah-Jireh highlights God’s provisions when he provides a ram for Abraham** (Genesis 22:14) >” And Abraham called the name of that place Jehovah-jireh: as it is said to this day, In the mount of the LORD it shall be seen” **Jehovah-Rapha displays God’s ability to heal** (Exodus 15:26) >”… for I am the LORD that healeth thee.” **Jehovah-Tsidkenu emphasizes God’s righteousness** (Jeremiah 23:6) >”In his days Judah shall be saved, and Israel shall dwell safely: and this is his name whereby he shall be called, The Lord Our Righteousness.“ And these lists could go on and on, but the point remains. It would seem senseless to suggest that these titles are referring to separate entities in the Old or New Testament, as the Bible is clear on there being one God and one mediator between God and men, the Man Christ Jesus (1 Timothy 2:5). Similarly, Scripture never seems to clearly indicate a distinction between these events, rather, we often see instances where both the redemption aspect (rapture) is directly tied to the destruction aspect (Christ’s judgment and wrath). Throughout Paul’s epistles to the Thessalonians we see a connection of these two events - 1 Thessalonians 4 seems to carry over into Chapter 5 without evidence of a *new* event being discussed. Likewise, 2 Thessalonians 1 & 2 seem to do the same, connecting relief being granted in the moment Christ also destroys the wicked. This also occurs in Matthew 24 where Jesus seems to tie destruction of the wicked in the same event as gathering his elect. Wouldn’t it follow, then, that the *Day of the Lord* and the *Day of Jesus Christ* could very likely describe distinct facets of a singular event? The *Day of the Lord* might emphasize the cosmic judgment and upheaval accompanying Christ’s return, while the *Day of Jesus Christ* focuses on the fulfillment of believers’ salvation and reward. To argue otherwise risks imposing divisions not explicitly delineated in Scripture, much as insisting on separate entities for Jesus’ various titles would.

One of my close friends has recently taken to believing in a pre-trib rapture, and out of respect for her, I've tried my best to understand why she believes it. I've seen the texts which the pre-tribulationists use to support their views (mainly 1 Thess. 4:13-19, 1 Corinthians 15:50-58, John 14:1-3, Matt 24, Rev. 3:10, and many others) and heard their arguments but I'm still perplexed by how the logic works. I can see how, if you already had the idea of a pre-tribulation rapture, you might think some or all of those verses support that interpretation. However, what I can't see is how you anyone came up with the idea in the first place. Clearly, someone did, since there has not been a continuous tradition of pre-tribulationists and the evidence that anyone at all held that view before the 19th century is pretty scanty. So, what I want to understand is how did the idea of a pre-tribulational rapture originate (or re-originate, if the pre-tribbers are correct and it was the original doctrine)? How does one get to the idea of a pre-tribulational rapture without already having it in your mind? To be clear about what I'm asking (I don't think it's a duplicate of https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/7239/what-scripture-is-used-to-support-a-pre-tribulation-rapture) : I want to know how one would use Scripture to build up the picture of the pre-tribulational rapture, i.e. that Jesus will return in a secret way to gather the church off the earth and we all go into heaven prior to the seven-year Tribulation period, during which many (all?) ethnic Jews will become believers, after which Jesus will return in glory and destroy the anti-Christ and rescue the faithful Jewish believers. If you read the Bible with no pre-conceived notions of the eschaton, what kind of reasoning would lead you to believe that it teaches this timeline?

I'm not looking for Biblical support of the doctrine, but for a post-Biblical teaching that clearly articulated a pre-tribulation rapture, as opposed to a post-tribulation or mid-tribulation rapture, or clear documentation that an early Christian group specifically held pre-tribulation views.

> Luke 21:36 Be always on the watch, and pray that you may be able to escape all that is about to happen, and that you may be able to stand before the Son of Man.” Doesn't the verse mean that we should pray to escape the tribulation and what does Jesus mean by "pray that you may be able to stand before the Son of Man"

I had asked this question regarding LDS eschatology and thought that I ask the same one from Jehovah's Witnesses point of view. I can see however that there's this other question where the answer touches on some of the points, so I want to take my question on a slightly different route. 1. Do Jehovah's Witnesses have a doctrinal opinion on why Great Tribulation is called "Great Tribulation", i.e. what makes it a Great Tribulation? Are the reasons spiritual, economical, or something else? 2. Do Jehovah's Witnesses have any official beliefs on how long the Great Tribulation is expected to last?

> 2 Thess 2:1-3: Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, brothers, **not to be quickly shaken in mind or alarmed**, either by a spirit or a spoken word, or a letter seeming to be from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. Let no one deceive you in any way. **For that day will not come, unless the rebellion comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction**. Paul appears to be saying that "that day" (the day of the Lord's coming and our being gathered to him) will not come unless two conditions (the rebellion and the revelation of the lawless one) come first. According to pre-tribulational rapture theory the rapture of the Church takes place well in advance of both of these conditions. If he is writing to reassure his pre-trib rapture followers that the Second Coming of Christ (Day of the Lord) hasn't happened yet, why has he listed two conditions that they will not be around to witness? Why not say, for instance, "The rapture comes first and you're still here aren't you?"

The Bible warns against the activities of deceivers and false prophets who arose during the first century, and continues to warn against their activities during the "last days". Here are a few relevant Bible verses: >But every inspired statement [every spirit] that does not acknowledge [confess] Jesus [is not from God] does not originate with God. Furthermore, this is the [spirit of the ] antichrist's inspired statement that you have heard was coming, and now it is already in the world (1 John 4:3 Revised New World Translation) > >For many deceivers have gone out into the world, those not acknowledging Jesus Christ as coming in the flesh. This is the deceiver and the antichrist. (2 John 1:7 (Revised New World Translation) > >Let no one seduce you in any manner, because it will not come [the day of Jehovah] unless the apostasy comes first and the man of lawlessness gets revealed, the son of destruction. He is set in opposition and lifts himself up over everyone who is called "god" or an object of reverence, so that he sits down in the temple of The God, publicly showing himself to be a god. (2 Thessalonians 2:3-4 New World Translation 2006) Has the man of lawlessness, the son of destruction and the antichrist been revealed yet? What is "the temple of The God" in 2 Thessalonians 2:4? What activities today identify the antichrist in these, the "last days" leading up to the tribulation prior to "the day of Jehovah"? What is the official view of Jehovah's Witnesses regarding the antichrist?

What percentage of all Christians, who believe in pre-millenial Rapture of the Church hold pre-tribulation, respectively post-tribulation view? As far as I know, majority of Christians hold pre-tribulation view. But can anybody tell the percentage?

Simply the question: What, if anything, does the Catholic Church teach about its existence at the time of the tribulation?

What view of the tribulation do Calvinists generally tend to take? I am aware of the eschatology espoused in the [Westminister Confession](http://www.reformed.org/documents/wcf_with_proofs/) , but I don't see anything related to the tribulation there. The reason that I ask for a "Calvinist perpective of Tribulation" is that I believe in pre-destination / TULIP. I do not know if this belief supports / contradicts certain views of the tribulation, and would like to better understand this subject. **So, what is the Calvinist perpective on the tribulation?**

There is this other question with an answer that touches on the Great Tribulation as it is viewed in LDS eschatology, but I would like to ask more specifically about the situation on earth during the Great Tribulation: 1. What physical events do Mormons believe will happen before or during the Great Tribulation? 2. In what sense will it be a "Great Tribulation" - is this mostly symbolic or are there spiritual or physical (e.g. economical) reasons that warrant the label "Great Tribulation"? 3. Do Mormons have any official beliefs on how long the Great Tribulation is expected to last?

This question is about Jehovah's Witnesses understanding of Jesus words in Matthew 24:21-22: > for then there will be great tribulation such as has not occurred > since the world’s beginning until now, no, nor will occur again. In > fact, unless those days were cut short, no flesh would be saved; but > on account of the chosen ones those days will be cut short. My question is particularly about the part "unless those days were cut short, no flesh would be saved". It looks to me like Jesus was saying that the situation would be such that no flesh or life would **survive**, unless those days are cut short. Like as if he is referring to some severe threat to all life on earth. Unless I am misunderstanding the word "saved". I checked the articles I found about the Great Tribulation at jw.org (such as this article titled "What Is the Great Tribulation?" and this article ) but did not find an explanation as to why "no flesh would be saved". **Questions:** 1. Do Jehovah's Witnesses have an opinion on whether this passage refers to a situation in which all life on earth is threatened? (Or does the word "saved" here refer to no humans somehow being "worthy" to be saved?) 2. If if refers to a situation in which the survival of all life is threatened, what is the cause of this threat? For example is it because of some action by mankind such as World War 3 or something like that?

I am fairly well-versed in premillennial theology, however, I was challenged frequently while at Bible College on my point of view of a pre-tribulation rapture in favor of a post-tribulation rapture. I understand the principles of post-trib thought, but I fail to see any scriptural evidence for it. Can someone please point me to the scriptural evidence used to support a post-tribulation rapture? I have read "Gospel of the Kingdom" by George Eldon Ladd and I enjoyed it, but I suppose that perhaps I did not properly understand it or his argument for a post-trib rapture.

I am looking not for deductions, or interpretations that some preacher insists upon. I need a scripture which is irrefutable. Can anyone give me one?

Let's just say God raptures his church in the next few years and we are alive to experience it. We survive the 7 remaining years. Then the "Glorious Appearance" happens and God sets up his 1000 year reign on Earth. Will our loved ones come down from Heaven to live on Earth with us? Or will we have to live 1000 years with God on Earth before returning to Heaven to see our loved ones? How does that work? Will Heaven on Earth and Heaven become one so that way we will all be able to live together? Or will (Heaven on Earth) and (Heaven) still be two separate places until God takes us up to heaven after his 1000 year reign?

Matthew 24:36 reads: > But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father. (NIV) Wouldn't Post-Trib adherents be able to say that you could indeed calculate the exact day of Christ's return, because it would be exactly 7 years from the signing/enforcing of the peace treaty with Israel that's prophesied in the Bible?