According to Ahmad Adwan's recent explanation of Sura 5, it appears that the Qur'an designates Israel as the land of the Jews and that until Judgement day, is not to be touched. Is this an accurate explanation (and if not, how so)?
Source for Ahmad Adwan's explanation: www.alquds.co.uk
Asked by PixelArtDragon
(151 rep)
Feb 6, 2014, 10:34 PM
Last activity: Feb 14, 2019, 05:52 PM
Last activity: Feb 14, 2019, 05:52 PM