How do those who reject the Deity of Christ reconcile that both God and Christ know hearts and minds in Jeremiah 17:10 and Revelation 2:23?

In the Old Testament, God is identified by many things. Among these are His name, His unique attributes and characteristics, his role or office relative to His creation, and His unique abilities and actions. Sometimes these are combined in scripture when referring to God. One such combination is God's totally unique abilities and actions and His role as the judge of men's hearts and His authority to reward them according to His own findings. This identifies God as omniscient (an attribute unique to God) and as the judge of their hearts (a role or authority unique to God alone). Jeremiah 17:10 says: > "I, the LORD, **search the heart, I test the mind**, even > to give each man according to his ways, **According to the results of > his deeds.**" Please answer this simple question: who is it that Jeremiah addresses as the one that sees the hearts of men and Himself tests the mind? Who does the Old Testament repeatedly identify as this One who is so omniscient as to judge the hearts of men? (See 1 Samuel 16:7, 1 Chronicles 28:9, 29:17, 2 Chronicles 6:30, Psalm 7:9, 139:1, and others.) I ask this question because this is what Jesus Christ stated in Revelation 2:23: > "And I will kill her children with pestilence; and all the churches > will know that I am He who searches **the minds and hearts**; and I > will give to each one of you **according to your deeds.**" So you suppose that in writing this passage where Jesus identifies Himself as the one who searches the hearts of men and rewards them according to His judgment that John might have had reason to think that Jesus is the *same one* as the one who so identifies Himself throughout the Old Testament?