> The Spirit immediately drove him out into the wilderness. And he > was in the wilderness forty days, being tempted by Satan. And he was > with the wild animals, and the angels were ministering to him. (ESV) > > Mark 1:12–13 In this verse, the Holy Spirit sent Jesus into the wilderness to be tempted by Satan. Given that Jesus was the Son of God, the Holy Spirit must have known that Jesus could withstand the temptation. Why did the Holy Spirit do that then?

We read in Matthew 4 how Jesus was tempted in the desert. First temptation goes like this: > The tempter came to him and said, “If you are the Son of God, tell these stones to become bread.”. > Note the usage 'these stones'. Satan was not pointing to the dusty stones lying somewhere. Most likely, he picked a stone or two, dusted them and placed them in Jesus' hands before making the suggestion (Satan is traditionally believed to have extended the forbidden fruit to Eve in Eden). In the second and third temptations, we see Satan 'taking' Jesus to places. He was acting friendly with Jesus, and may have guided him with a hand on Jesus' shoulder, just as a person helps a friend climb a hill. At last Jesus says " Get away from me.." implying that Satan was in close proximity. The Gospels do not state in what form Satan tempted Jesus, and in what proximity he was. Are there any apocryphal writings or scholarly views available on the subject?

In Luke 4:1-12, Jesus is getting tempted by the devil. Three times he responds with the Scriptures instead of rebuking the devil. Why doesn’t Jesus just say, “I rebuke you Satan!” At the first temptation?

In his 33 years of life, He never sinned. I know I didn’t make it that far before sinning; nobody but Him could or can. So how did He do it? he was probably tempted to sin, but He didn’t.

We see that Blessed Virgin Mary had a rather smooth travel on her way to giving birth to Jesus, bar the physical hardship of travelling to Bethlehem towards the end of her pregnancy and trying to find a place to stay. She did not have to face any temptation say, the Devil threatening her that she would be abandoned by Joseph, and that Herod would send his men to kill her son etc. Jesus, on the other hand, was made to face temptations right at the beginning of his public mission. My question therefore is: **According to Catholic scholars, why was Blessed Virgin Mary spared of temptations on her way to motherhood?**

What form did Satan assume when tempting Christ? Or were these temptations strictly coming to Jesus through Satanic-driven thoughts?

According to Catholic theologians, is tempting another person always a sin? It would seem to be a sin, because tempting someone is to lead him into sin, which is the sin of scandal . It would seem not a sin, because of >Sirach 6:7 : If thou wouldst get a friend, try [or tempt] him before thou takest him (*in tentatione posside eum*), and do not credit him easily. and how we sometimes need to test others in order to avoid rash judgment or being deceived (cf. II-II q. 60 a. 4 ad 1); thus, >without rashly judging a person who is somewhat suspect, one may take precautions to avoid being deceived by him in a case in which he would have a bad intention. Thus, without rashly judging his servants, a householder keeps certain precious articles under lock and key; and at times he intentionally leaves money on a table to see if it will be taken.
—Réginald Garrigou-Lagrange, O.P., *Three Ages of the Interior Life* pt. 3 ch. 20 § "How to Make Progress in Fraternal Charity", fn. 1666 (EPUB ref:150.172)

1 Corinthians 10:13 (ESV) > 13 No temptation has overtaken you that is not common to man. **God is faithful, and he will not let you be tempted beyond your ability**, **but with the temptation he will also provide the way of escape, that you may be able to endure it**. If God's grace is irresistible, then the grace God offers to resist temptation should also be irresistible. Yet Christians still fall into sin, which sounds like a logical contradiction. How do Reformed Calvinists make sense of 1 Corinthians 10:13? ____ Related: - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/91151/50422 - [If God gives us enough grace so that we don't have to sin (1 Corinthians 10:13), then why do we still sin (1 John 1:8-10, 2:1-2)?](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/76302/38524)

I'm referring to promises such as: > 13 No temptation has overtaken you that is not common to man. **God is faithful, and he will not let you be tempted beyond your ability, but with the temptation he will also provide the way of escape, that you may be able to endure it**. (1 Corinthians 10:13 ESV)​ > 7 Little children, let no one deceive you. Whoever practices righteousness is righteous, as he is righteous. 8 Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the works of the devil. 9 **No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God's seed abides in him; and he cannot keep on sinning, because he has been born of God**. 10 By this it is evident who are the children of God, and who are the children of the devil: whoever does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor is the one who does not love his brother. (1 John 3:7-10 ESV) > 8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; **it is the gift of God**, 9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast. 10 **For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them**. (Ephesians 2:8-10 ESV) > 8 Indeed, I count everything as loss because of the surpassing worth of knowing Christ Jesus my Lord. For his sake I have suffered the loss of all things and count them as rubbish, in order that I may gain Christ 9 and be found in him, **not having a righteousness of my own that comes from the law, but that which comes through faith in Christ, the righteousness from God that depends on faith**— (Philippians 3:8-9 ESV) If God offers grace to Christians to overcome temptation and live a righteous life, then why do Christians still fall into sin? What prevents Christians from living perfectly sinless lives?

>Then Jesus was led up by the spirit into the wilderness to be tempted by the devil. 2 And after he had fasted for forty days and forty nights, he then became hungry. Matt 4:1-2 Jesus was hungry - says nothing about being thirsty, which would usually be a more urgent need. This example of perhaps the most significant fast in the bible, appears to have been of food only. Further we read that the first temptation was, >If you are the Son of God, tell these stones to become *bread*. Is there a definite description of what kind of fasting God requires - specifically when he *requires a fast* as opposed to a time without food etc for other purposes or reasons.

We read in Mtt 4:1-4, of the Temptation of Jesus in the wilderness : > Then Jesus was led up by the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted by the devil. He fasted forty days and forty nights, and afterwards he was famished. The tempter came and said to him, “If you are the Son of God, command these stones to become loaves of bread.” Here, we see the Devil using calculated words, i.e. "IF you are the Son of God......"In other words, the Devil was asking Jesus to disclose his divinity, as if he was not sure of whom he was tempting. Elsewhere, we see Jesus forbidding his own disciples from telling others that he is the Messiah ( Mtt 16:20; Mk 8:30). That said, the Devil was presumably tempting Jesus to disclose his divinity much before the appointed time. But, the motifs of the First Temptation we have, are of stone and bread . My question therefore, is: According to Catholic teachings, what was the First Temptation of Christ basically about ?

We all know Jesus was without sin. That he *did not sin* has little to do with whether he *could* or *could not* sin. The core reasoning of Jesus being *able to sin* is that he was tempted. This temptation was a core part of his lifelong journey to the cross. >For we do not have a high priest who is unable to empathize with our weaknesses, but we have one who has been **tempted in every way, just as we are**—yet he did not sin. Heb 4:15 We know he had his own will which differed from God's. Satan knew this when he tried to tempt Jesus into exercising his own will for selfish purposes. >"For I have come down from heaven not to do my will but to do the will of him who sent me" John 6:38 >"Take this cup from me. Yet not what I will, but what you will” Mark 14:36 There is no dispute that he *was tempted* in the manner of putting his will before God's. However, this temptation is only valid if he *could* succumb to temptation and actually sin? IOW, if he *could not* sin, then the temptation was pointless and a farce. Which seems a highly unlikely proposition. If Jesus' temptations were true and real, then he must have been able to sin. Is there is a biblical basis for him *not being able* to sin? There is another Q asking from a reformed aspect - see comments. This Q seeks to obtain any relevant biblical source. Link to question given in comments: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/53150/how-does-reformed-theology-reconcile-jesus-meaningful-temptation-and-impeccabil

Matthew 6:9-13 Jesus instructs us: > “This, then, is how you should pray: > > “‘Our Father in heaven, hallowed be your name, your kingdom come, your will be done, on earth as it is in heaven. Give us today our daily bread. And forgive us our debts, as we also have forgiven our debtors. **And lead us not into temptation**, but deliver us from the evil one.’" But James 1:13-14 says: > When tempted, no one should say, “God is tempting me.” For God cannot be tempted by evil, **nor does he tempt anyone**; but each person is tempted when they are dragged away by their own evil desire and enticed. If God doesn't tempt us, why does the Lord's Prayer petition Him not to lead us into temptation?

There are several related questions already about this topic on C.SE, such as ["What does it mean that Jesus was tempted in every way like us (yet without sin)?"](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/7146/what-does-it-mean-that-jesus-was-tempted-in-every-way-like-us-yet-without-sin) and ["What is temptation?"](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/14116/what-is-temptation) . My question is focusing on the phenomena that some people say that *having* evil desires isn't sinful in itself, but *yielding* to them is sinful. Others say that sinful desires are *inherently* sinful. It seems that there isn't agreement within broader Christianity about this issue, so I'm curious about which particular traditions (if any) teach that having evil desires does not necessarily mean that one is sinning. No doubt the answer to this question is especially related to this question: ["Would it have been possible for Jesus to sin?"](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/2485/would-it-have-been-possible-for-jesus-to-sin) , with particular regard to the question of whether Jesus had evil desires (I don't think he did).

In Reformed Theology what mechanisms and practices does God provide a believer to help fight temptation? Common answers are grace, prayer, Holy Spirit, and possibly others. **But how does God make grace work and what is our part in the fight?** Is there more than exerting our will mightily and when we fail we pick ourselves up, say sorry to God, and try again later at another fight? To help clarify the question, consider how a Reformed believer should respond when a Pentecostal friend confronts him/her of years of **showing no progress** over fighting a particular temptation (like anger, procrastination, laziness, etc.) The Pentecostal friend can say that **grace obviously doesn't work** and blame the Reformed believer for: 1. NOT doing tongue prayer for the Holy Spirit to intercede and fight forces in the unseen realm, or 2. NOT imitating Jesus's casting out the demon who tempts the believer in the first place, or 3. NOT fasting, which is key to break free from strongholds, 4. NOT converting to Pentecostalism so you receive 2nd baptism (filling in the Holy Spirit) so you receive power to fight temptation How should a Reformed believer respond to the above?

It is stated in the Gospels of Matthew, Mark, and Luke that during the 40 day period Christ was tempted by The Devil/Satan but not many other details are given. In the book of Isaiah (Isaiah 58:1-12 ), the Prophet Isaiah highlights what a pleasing and acceptable fast is according to The Creator. In order for his fast to be acceptable unto The Creator, what was Yahshua/Jesus doing during that period? Are there any stories, commentaries, articles, and/or resources that highlight or discuss what was going on during his 40 days? Thank you.

Some Christians believe in God and Jesus, but not the devil. If so, what is their explanation of the temptation of Christ in the desert?

Matthew 26:40-41 NIV > Then he returned to his disciples and found them sleeping. “Couldn’t > you men keep watch with me for one hour?” he asked Peter. 41 “Watch > and pray so that you will not fall into temptation. The spirit is > willing, but the flesh is weak.” How does sleep put the apostles into temptation? I understand why they should pray but how the sleep can put them into temptation? Can a sleep be a doorway to a devil? Or what is Jesus talking about here according to the Roman Catholic Church teaching? What is the context?

We see the narratives of Temptation(s) of Christ prior to the commencement of His public life, in the Gospels of Matthew, Mark and Luke. Even though the narratives lead one to believe that all the three temptations took place on the same day, the locations of the temptations viz. wilderness, mountain and City Jerusalem would have us believe otherwise--unless of course, both Jesus and the Devil used super-human powers to travel faster than what was normally possible. My question therefore is: Were the three temptations of Jesus spread out on three different days? What do the teachings of Catholic Church tell us on such a prospective ?

In James 1:13 it says: > Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: But in Genesis 22:1 it is written: > And it came to pass after these things, that God did tempt Abraham, and said unto him, Abraham: and he said, Behold, here I am. So did God actually tempt Abraham or not?