Many Christians pray and act as if Satan is right next to them all the time, tempting them to turn away from God, attacking them, etc., as though he were omnipresent... What is the Biblical basis against Satan's omnipresence?

Matthew 18:20, "For where two or three are gathered together in My name, there I am in their midst." The same idea is also expressed at John 14:23, "Jesus answered and said to him, "If anyone loves Me, he will keep My word; and My Father will love him, and WE will come to him, and make Our "abode" with him." That Jesus is present wherever people are gathered in His name speaks of His deity. So, how can this be in view of the fact that only God is omnipresent?

In talking to Jehovah's Witnesses I found it difficult to discover what they believed on these three attributes: Omnipotent - God cannot be thwarted by the Devil, sin, sinners, or the world but is all-powerful in all things. Omniscient - God knows all things about all things, past, present and future, all the time. Nothing escapes his knowledge, including our thoughts & motives. Omnipresent - God is in all places, at all times, in the fullness of his being. It is not just a bit of God everywhere, but _all_ of God is everywhere _all the time_. So he does not need angels or anyone else to inform him of anything anywhere at any time. What is the Jehovah's Witness belief on these matters?

Psalm 139:1-12 are typically understood throughout traditional Christianity as referring, at least in part, to God's omnipresence as well as His omniscience and omnipotence: > To the chief Musician, A Psalm of David. O LORD, thou hast searched me, and known me. Thou knowest my downsitting and mine uprising, thou understandest my thought afar off. Thou compassest my path and my lying down, and art acquainted with all my ways. For there is not a word in my tongue, but, lo, O LORD, thou knowest it altogether. Thou hast beset me behind and before, and laid thine hand upon me. Such knowledge is too wonderful for me; it is high, I cannot attain unto it. Whither shall I go from thy spirit? or **whither shall I flee from thy presence?** If I ascend up into heaven, thou art there: if I make my bed in hell, behold, thou art there. If I take the wings of the morning, and dwell in the uttermost parts of the sea; Even there shall thy hand lead me, and thy right hand shall hold me. If I say, Surely the darkness shall cover me; even the night shall be light about me. Yea, the darkness hideth not from thee; but the night shineth as the day: the darkness and the light are both alike to thee. And this is echoed elsewhere in the Bible, for example Jeremiah 23:23-24: > Am I a God at hand, saith the LORD, and not a God afar off? Can any hide himself in secret places that I shall not see him? saith the LORD. Do not I fill heaven and earth? saith the LORD. From the LDS "Doctrines of the Gospel Student Manual , Chapter 3: God the Father" I have gleaned the following: - “**God is** the only supreme governor and independent being in whom all fullness and perfection dwell; who is omnipotent, **omnipresent**, and omniscient; without beginning of days or end of life; and that in him every good gift and every good principle dwell; and that he is the Father of lights; in him the principle of faith dwells independently, and he is the object in whom the faith of all other rational and accountable beings center for life and salvation” (Joseph Smith, comp., Lectures on Faith, 10). This statement from Joseph Smith, that God is omnipotent, seems to be in accord with traditional Christianity. However, other statements gleaned from this same manual appear to be in opposition. It seems as though there is an understanding of God as possessing flesh and bone and being separate and distinct from two others in the "Godhead" while being united in purpose, attribute, and power: - God is a holy, perfected personage with a body of flesh and bones (see Moses 6:57; 7:35; D&C 130:22; Matthew 5:48). - Each member of the Godhead is physically separate and distinct from the others (see D&C 130:22; Matthew 3:16–17; Acts 7:55–56). - The members of the Godhead are united in Their attributes, power, and purpose (see John 17:20–21; D&C 20:28; 35:2; 2 Nephi 31:21; 3 Nephi 11:27). This additional information about God appears to lead to the statement from Bruce McConkie that God is not omnipresent in person but only in power and influence (same source as above): - “Though each God in the Godhead is a personage, separate and distinct from each of the others, yet they are ‘one God’ … , meaning that they are united as one in the attributes of perfection. For instance, each has the fulness of truth, knowledge, charity, power, justice, judgment, mercy, and faith. Accordingly they all think, act, speak, and are alike in all things; and **yet they are three separate and distinct entities. Each occupies space and is and can be in but one place at one time**, but each has power and influence that is everywhere present” (McConkie, Mormon Doctrine, 319). How does LDS define omnipresence and how does that definition reflect or redefine what appears in Psalm 139 as actual presence everywhere, specifically verse 7 where God's face (pânı̂ym/presence) is in view? __________________________________________________________________________________________________ There is this related question but in light of the statements of Smith and McConkie I am unsure that the given answers are applicable here.

We read: > Even before there is a word on my tongue, Behold, Lord, You know it > all. > > You have encircled me behind and in front, And placed Your hand upon > me. Such knowledge is too wonderful for me; It is too high, I cannot > comprehend it. > > Where can I go from Your Spirit? Or where can I flee from Your > presence? If I ascend to heaven, You are there; If I make my bed in > Sheol, behold, You are there. > > If I take up the wings of the dawn, If I dwell in the remotest part of > the sea, Even there Your hand will lead me, And Your right hand will > take hold of me. Psalm 139:4-10 So if God is everywhere at once (omnipresent) then does that mean we inhale God, breath on God, step on God? To be everywhere is absolute, right? ***I’m not attempting irreverence here, but I am genuinely confused with omnipresence*** **Q: According to Protestant theology, does God’s omnipresence entail us colliding into God constantly?**

Omnipresence is generally defined within Western Christianity as: > the property of being present anywhere and everywhere. The term omnipresence is most often used in a religious context as an attribute of a deity or supreme being, while the term ubiquity is generally used to describe something "existing or being everywhere at the same time, constantly encountered, widespread, common". Ubiquitous can also be used as a synonym for words like worldwide, universal, global, pervasive, all over the place. The omnipresence of a supreme being is conceived differently by different religious systems. In monotheistic beliefs like Christianity, and Judaism the divine and the universe are separate, but the divine is present everywhere. - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Omnipresence God remains transcendent to His creation and yet is immanent in relating to it. He can act within creation anytime and everywhere, whatever he wants: He cannot be excluded from any location or object in creation. God is omnipresent in a way that he is able to interact with his creation however he chooses, and is the very essence of his creation. In other words, without God's omnipresence there would be no creation as it currently stands. God then, being omnipresent, is ontologically different (outside of or other than) the universe but is present any and everywhere within the universe. This is to be distinguished from pantheism where God and the universe are indistinct. Terms that we use to describe space/time are limited in their ability to fully encapsulate what is meant by the omnipresence of God. > omnipresence doesn't mean divine occupation of all space, nor divine distribution over all space, nor indwelling of every entity, nor that God cannot move in space, nor the divinification of the universe; but means that God is fully present every-where, and that God can do different things at different places at the same time. - Domenic Marbaniang, "Omnipresence", Light of Life, Mumbai, February 2018 David, in Psalm 139, expresses what each Western Christian everywhere can say at all times: > Where can I go from Your Spirit? Or where can I flee from Your presence? If I ascend into heaven, You are there; If I make my bed in hell, behold, You are there. If I take the wings of the morning, And dwell in the uttermost parts of the sea, Even there Your hand shall lead me, And Your right hand shall hold me. If I say, “Surely the darkness shall fall on me,” Even the night shall be light about me; Indeed, the darkness shall not hide from You, But the night shines as the day; The darkness and the light are both alike to You. Part of the Western Christian concept of God's omnipresence is (to quote the Highlander) "There can be only One": The God who "fills all in all " does not leave room for another to also fill all in all. LDS, on the other hand, posits an unknowable number of Gods who already are and who are yet to be. Does the LDS Church have a similar concept of the omnipresence of God? What, if any, are the differences?

One of those attributes of God is his ability to be everywhere at all times. I'm not debating that it is an attribute of his, I'm just wondering how we know that. I ask, because I've been going through a question of my own recently - If God is omnipresent, how can hell exist? After all, hell is by definition, that one place that God is not. But, if God is everywhere, how can there be a place that he is not? My favorite answer to that question comes from C.S. Lewis' *The Great Divorce*, in which he describes hell not as a place of fire and brimstone, but rather an infinitely empty, substance-lacking smallness. The journey from hell to heaven that his characters make is not from "down" to "up" from rather from "small" to "big" and "weak" to "strong." I really like using that idea of hell, since it seemingly answers the idea that hell is merely a place that is, itself, so small and insubstantial that it isn't God's lack of presence, but rather its own insignificance that causes God's presence to feel so lacking. In order to test that assertion, however, I want to make sure that I am correctly stating the postulate - namely that God really can be everywhere at all times. What is its biblical basis, and does God presence exist in hell?

I'm confused about what panentheism is. The Wikipedia article and the few mentions of it here on Stack Exchange both indicate that some Christians identify as panentheists and some don't. I'm guessing it largely comes down to how you define it, but the Oxford English Dictionary has only one definition and I have a hard time seeing what separates it from an orthodox understanding of omnipresence: > **panentheism** , *n*. > > The theory or belief that God encompasses and interpenetrates the universe but at the same time is greater than and independent of it. Freq. contrasted with *pantheism*. Wikipedia mentions that panentheism influences process theology, open theism, universalism, and other doctrines generally regarded as unorthodox, as well as Hinduism, but it doesn't state that such beliefs are a necessary consequence of adhering to panentheism. My questions, then, are: 1. What does panentheism imply that a classical Christian formulation of omnipresence does not? 2. How widespread is panentheism within Protestantism? 3. What problems do Protestants who reject basic panentheism have with it? By basic panentheism, I mean a panentheism that isn't attached to open theism and the other problematic doctrines mentioned above.

I believe that God is omnipresent, but what are some Bible verses that back this up? Here are some counterarguments: >Exodus 3:16 >"...**I have surely visited you** and seen what is being done to you in Egypt." > > Genesis 28:12  And he dreamed: There was a ladder set up on the earth, and its top reached to heaven; and there the angels of God were ascending and descending on it. > 28:13  **And there was Jehovah, standing above it**..."

Some verses seem to indicate that God is indeed not omnipresent such as Acts 7:48, "The Most High dwelleth not in temples made with hands". How is this specific verse reconciled with the doctrine that God is omnipresent?

Are all spirits omnipresent? According to Mormon doctrine, God is omnipresent through his spirit, does that mean that all spirits are omnipresent or is the Holy Ghost a special case?