Joshua 10:12–14 describes that >the sun stood still in the midst of heaven, and hasted not to go down the space of one day. Victor Warkulwiz, *Universe without Space and Time* , ch. 2 claims >Joshua’s long day was observed around the world, as indicated in the folklore of various nations. With Hezekiah’s sign (Isaiah 38:7–8 , 4 Kgs 20:8-11 , 2 Par 32:24 ), the sun momentarily went backwards. What non-biblical historical evidence is there of "Joshua's long day" and "Hezekiah's sign"?

I'm trying to figure out the First verse to mention forgiveness in the Scriptures (Bible or other Gospels or other writings) w.r.t Eve - a savior among her progeny. Is there a reference in the New Testament or Apocryphal writings? More specifically, is there any reference to verses where the Almighty teaches what forgiveness is & to which first Human? Since the concept of 'Sin' was first from Eve, I was quoting that. Maybe there are other passages elsewhere. An example, Say, if you want to teach Lilith - 'The Screech Owl' or Natural instinctual beings what forgiveness is when such a concept is not known.

The gift of interpretation of tongues is mentioned in chapters 12 and 14 of the apostle Paul's first Epistle to the Corinthians: > 10 to another the working of miracles, to another prophecy, to another the ability to distinguish between spirits, to another various kinds of tongues, **to another the interpretation of tongues**. [1 Cor 12:10, ESV] > > 29 Are all apostles? Are all prophets? Are all teachers? Do all work miracles? 30 Do all possess gifts of healing? Do all speak with tongues? **Do all interpret?** 31 But earnestly desire the higher gifts. [1 Cor 12:29-31, ESV] > > 5 Now I want you all to speak in tongues, but even more to prophesy. The one who prophesies is greater than the one who speaks in tongues, **unless someone interprets**, so that the church may be built up. [1 Cor 14:5, ESV] > > 13 Therefore, **one who speaks in a tongue should pray that he may interpret**. 14 For if I pray in a tongue, my spirit prays but my mind is unfruitful. 15 What am I to do? I will pray with my spirit, but I will pray with my mind also; I will sing praise with my spirit, but I will sing with my mind also. [1 Cor 14:13-15, ESV] > > 26 What then, brothers? When you come together, each one has a hymn, a lesson, a revelation, a tongue, **or an interpretation**. Let all things be done for building up. 27 If any speak in a tongue, let there be only two or at most three, and each in turn, **and let someone interpret**. 28 **But if there is no one to interpret**, let each of them keep silent in church and speak to himself and to God. [1 Cor 14:26-28, ESV] Besides these two biblical chapters, are there any other extra-biblical documented occurrences of the gift of interpretation of tongues in the history of the Church?

[Xenoglossy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Xenoglossy) , the ability to suddenly speak a language one has never learned or studied, is reported to have taken place at Pentecost in Acts chapter 2. Are there any other independent sources that claim something similar to have happened during the early stages of Christianity? Any other reports of xenoglossy apart from Acts 2 during, say, the first 300 years of Church history? Note: there is a similar question https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/57350/50422 , but the question itself and its single answer so far appear to be focused on glossolalia, not xenoglossy. ____ Similar question constrained to modern times: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/80486/50422

The Scriptures record that there was three hours of darkness during the crucifixion of Jesus. This is a pretty significant meteorological event. Furthermore, the morning of Jesus' resurrection, the Scriptures indicate that there was an earthquake. Additionally, when Jesus died, the curtain of the Temple was apparently torn in two. > Now **from the sixth hour there was darkness over all the land until the ninth hour**. Matthew 27:45 ESV > > And behold, **the curtain of the temple was torn in two**, from top to bottom. And **the earth shook, and the rocks were split**. Matthew 27:51 ESV I don't know if there are historical records of any earthquakes, eclipses, or such things in any of antiquity. Yet, I am indeed curious to know if there are, and, if so, if there are any secular historical records that could match up to these events that surrounded the death of resurrection of Christ.

We are aware from the recordings in the Gospels of the Christians that phenomena such as an ***Earthquake*** shook (Matthew 27:51), and that there was ***darkness*** (Matthew 27:45). And other posted question have dealt with these in relation to Secular or Extra-biblical confirmations. But were there ***other happenings*** that could be considered the result of (caused by) the crucifying of Jesus, that are also recorded in extra-biblical documents and ancient writings? Especially events related to Jewish ritual or Temple worship? ***The Crucifixion of the Lamb of God*** is the linch-pin of Christianity. It is the crux of the message of salvation for the whole world! Jesus's cross contains the transom of history upon which balances the whole redemption story of God's love toward mankind. So one would justly conclude that there would be ***many significant events*** accompanying this event, pointing to its importance, and underscoring its uniqueness in the long history of mankind.

I've heard from multiple sources that there isn't even the slightest of (extra-biblical) evidence of the Exodus story or even evidence for the presence of Israelites in Egypt. If this is true, why is this and how do Christians get over this lack of evidence? If this isn't necessarily true, what extra-biblical evidence is there of Israelites being enslaved, escaping, and wandering in the desert for 40 years?

Kurt Vonnegut, a 20th century American writer who identified himself as a Christ loving atheist wrote this little prayer in a fictional setting, as part of the plot of his "Slaughterhouse five" novel. It could be found on page 52 in the 1969 edition of his book. "*God grant me the serenity to accept the things I cannot change, courage to change the things I can, and wisdom always to tell the difference*" Are there any biblical verses that rhymes with the above excerpt, in terms of what it conveys?

>From the sixth hour until the ninth hour darkness came over all the land... And when Jesus had cried out again in a loud voice, he gave up his spirit. At that moment the curtain of the temple was torn in two from top to bottom. The earth shook and the rocks split" (Matthew 27:45, 50-51). As a Christian of the Protestant persuasion, I do not doubt the truth of these words. But how do I respond to detractors who claim there is no evidence of the curtain in the temple being torn in two? I am interested in evidence from Catholic, Orthodox and Protestant sources. Edit: Five years after asking this question, I found this information: >"The persistent 33 A.D. seismite indicates the biggest 33 A.D. earthquake was M~6.0. This biggest earthquake was likely April 3, 33 A.D. that startled city residents and caused moderate damage, especially to the western side of Temple Mount. Pivots of two, 20-m-high, metal doors of the Temple appear to have been damaged, and the 20-m-high curtain in front of the doors was torn, likely by displacement of the lintel of the Temple during the earthquake." https://gsa.confex.com/gsa/2012AM/webprogram/Paper204688.html#:~:text=The%20persistent%2033%20A.D.%20seismite,western%20side%20of%20Temple%20Mount

According to the [2020 PhilPapers Survey results](https://survey2020.philpeople.org/survey/results/5010?target_group=) , when asked about their stance on *Consciousness: identity theory, eliminativism, functionalism, dualism, or panpsychism?*, only 20.98% leaned towards or accepted [mind-body dualism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mind%E2%80%93body_dualism) . The remaining respondents were distributed among [functionalism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Functionalism_(philosophy_of_mind)) (32.28%), [identity theory](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Type_physicalism) (12.64%), [panpsychism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panpsychism) (8.54%), [eliminativism](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eliminative_materialism) (5.51%), agnostic/undecided (12.31%), a combination of views (6.79%), and an alternative view (5.85%). The Christian belief in the existence of human spirits or souls appears to resonate most closely with the concept of mind-body dualism. Based on the survey results, this suggests that roughly up to ~20% of philosophers might find the notion of spirits or souls plausible. Conversely, a significant portion of philosophers (50.43%) subscribe to [materialist](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Materialism) or [physicalist](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Physicalism) perspectives such as functionalism, identity theory, or eliminativism. Panpsychism (8.54%), on the other hand, posits that *"the mind is a fundamental feature of the world which exists throughout the universe,"* aligning more closely with certain Eastern religious traditions like *Advaita Vedānta* and *Buddha-nature* ([source](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Panpsychism#Religious_or_mystical_ontologies)) . While the Bible explicitly states that humans are more than physical bodies, by possessing spirits or souls, citing verses from the Bible to ~80% of non-dualist philosophers is unlikely to be a convincing or compelling argument. Thus, are there arguments beyond biblical references that Christians employ in apologetics to defend their belief in the existence of spirits or souls?

This question is very similar to a question I just asked, but it's not a duplicate (just hear me out). Since there are many ways to read the Bible, I wanted to understand multiple points of view, that being: 1) those who understand this as a non-literal, non-historical event (modern, liberal scholars, perhaps) -- the previous question ; 2) those who interpret the events as literal, specifically the pericope of the Resurrection of the Holy Ones as cited in Matthew's Passion narrative specifically -- this question. Of course, the main body of the question will be similar, but I wanted to direct the question towards a different audience and provide a venue for that. There are also a variety of other questions geared for those who interpret it as literal. The scripture of focus is: > And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to > the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent; And the > graves were opened; and many bodies of the saints which slept arose, > And came out of the graves after his resurrection, and went into the > holy city, and appeared unto many. Now when the centurion, and they > that were with him, watching Jesus, saw the earthquake, and those > things that were done, they feared greatly, saying, Truly this was the > Son of God. (Matthew 27:51-54. KJV) With phenomenal events such as an earthquake so mighty it opens a number of graves and then the righteous dead arise and interact with the community, one would expect Matthew to explicate these miracles beyond the pithy lines in his text; or, at least, expect the other evangelists to also document these incidences in their narratives. The Markan narrative denotes the temple’s rented veil and the centurion’s response, but does not make any mention of an earthquake or the resurrection of saints. Similarly, Luke and John do not make even the slightest reference to these events. Additionally, during Peter’s pontifical address during Pentecost, not even a nebulous reference to a powerful earthquake or the resurrection of these saints is conveyed. Pentecost occurred fifty days following Christ’s resurrection and the supposed Holy Ones’ appearance to “many.” Therefore, the omission of these events in Peter’s address, especially to an audience that were likely witnesses to these events, is a curious oversight. Why didn't the other Gospel writers write about these? Why aren't there other extra-biblical sources for these events? It seems like more than Christ's followers would have witnessed these events.... And it certainly seems like something people would continue to talk about for ages thereafter... Are there other sources that may imply the opening of tombs and rising of the deceased? Or were only the righteous ones able to "see" these? Or is it that there weren't that many "righteous" individuals in the scheme of things -- that it was hardly noticed? Or that the resurrected beings, looked just like everyone else? Or did the High Priest somehow cover-up this story? (For instance, we read that they tried telling people that Christ's body was stolen). Or did they just destroy all the records they could get their hands on? (and the general witness to these events were illiterate)? Or we simply have not unearthed these records yet? After all, an absence of evidence is not evidence for something, right? Just confused why no one else mentions it. (Please correct me if I'm wrong!) Also, do we have any archaeological records of tombs breaking open? And does the geological record correspond to an earthquake happening in this region? ***If you are interested as to a non-literal, modern interpretation, please see my other question for the answer provided there.

[This question](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/19010/was-no-prophet-ever-came-out-of-galilee-sarcastic) talks about how in John 7:52, the Pharisees claimed that "no prophet comes out of Galilee." The accepted answer discusses how commentators often point out the Pharisees' mistake, and N.T. Wright points out that "both the prophets Jonah and Hosea came from Galilee." In addition, I found [this link](http://storage.cloversites.com/makinglifecountministriesinc/documents/Did%20Any%20Prophets%20Come%20Out%20of%20Galilee.pdf) , which says that 5 prophets came from Galilee: Jonah, Nahum, Hosea, Elijah, and Elisha. BibleStudyTools.org has an [article](https://www.bibletools.org/index.cfm/fuseaction/Topical.show/RTD/cgg/ID/11824/Hosea-as-Native-Galilee.htm) with a discussion about how Micah, Elijah, and Jonah being from Galilee, and how Nahum and Hosea could possibly have come from Galilee. **Which prophets are from Galilee, and how do we know?** An associated question, what is the source of the uncertainty surrounding this question? Perhaps I could word the question, what is the (Biblical and archeological) basis for saying that these 5 prophets are from Galilee? 1. Jonah from Gath-hepher >2 Kings 14:25 "He was the one who restored the boundaries of Israel from Lebo Hamath to the Dead Sea, in accordance with the word of the Lord, the God of Israel, spoken through his servant **Jonah son of Amittai, the prophet from Gath Hepher**." [Wikipedia on Gath-hepher](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gath-hepher) says it is in modern-day Galilee (maybe that's what it is saying?). Joshua 29:13 describes more where this place is. 2. Micah from Moresheth >Micah 1:1 The word of the Lord that came to **Micah of Moresheth** during the reigns of Jotham, Ahaz and Hezekiah, kings of Judah—the vision he saw concerning Samaria and Jerusalem. [BibleAtlas.org](https://bibleatlas.org/moresheth.htm) doesn't mention Galilee at all in the article on Moresheth, nor does [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Moresheth-Gath) in their article on Moresheth-Gath. Wikipedia says Moresheth = Moresheth-Gath. 3. Elijah from Gilead > 1 Kings 17:1 "Now **Elijah the Tishbite, from Tishbe in Gilead**, said to Ahab, 'As the Lord, the God of Israel, lives, whom I serve, there will be neither dew nor rain in the next few years except at my word.'" 2 Kings 15:29 actually seems to differentiate between Gilead and Galilee, which suggests that Gilead is not contained within Galilee. [Wikipedia on Gilead](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gilead) makes no mention of Galilee, and the [Bible Atlas](https://bibleatlas.org/gilead.htm) also seems to differentiate Gilead from Galilee by saying that in Gilead there is "the white chalk of the desert plateau, the same as that found in Samaria and Lower Galilee." 4. Elisha (I don't know the basis). 5. Hosea (I don't know the basis). I would like to see the basis for 4 and 5 (Elisha and Hosea) being from Galilee, and I would like to see how we can know 1-3 are actually from Galilee. I would also be interested if there are any other claims that additional prophets are from Galilee. My questions stems from the fact that none the verses say explicitly from Galilee, and I have seen almost nothing supporting the connection between the city mentioned and Galilee. Pardon my lack of knowledge in biblical geography. Perhaps it is obvious that these cities are contained in the region that is Galilee. There may also be a notable difference between the geographical boundaries in Galilee between the Old and New Testament timeframes or even within the Old Testament timeframe, which contains several thousand years of history on its own. I don't see how any denominational restriction will affect the answers, so I don't propose any.

The term "second death" appears four times in Scripture, all in Revelation (all NKJV, emphasis added): > He who has an ear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches. He who overcomes shall not be hurt by **the second death**. (Rev. 2:11) > Blessed and holy is he who has part in the first resurrection. Over such **the second death** has no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with Him a thousand years. (Rev. 20:6) > Then Death and Hades were cast into the lake of fire. This is **the second death**. (Rev. 20:14) > But the cowardly, unbelieving, abominable, murderers, sexually immoral, sorcerers, idolaters, and all liars shall have their part in the lake which burns with fire and brimstone, which is **the second death**. (Rev. 21:8) In 20:14 and 21:8, we're told the lake of fire "is" the second death. Scripture often will say an image "is" something else to let you know what the image really means. For example, when Joseph interpreted Pharaoh's dream, he says the seven good cows and seven good heads of grain "are" really seven years of food, while the seven thin cows and seven scorched heads of grain "are" really seven years of famine (Gen. 41:26). Jesus uses similar "is" language to explain what the elements of His parables really meant (e.g., Luke 8:11-15). With Revelation being a book of symbols, I'd like to know what the "second death" is, as it appears to be an interpretation of the lake of fire. If I take "second death" literally, I'd understand it as literally dying a second time. Is that how the Jewish literature used the phrase during and before the first century? What documents during and before the first century use the expression "second death," and what did it mean? Did it reference (1) eternal torment; (2) permanent, literal death/annihilation; (3) temporary, corrective punishment; or (4) something else? (I'm asking specifically for extra-biblical sources during and before the first century, not sources after.)

When it comes to controversial doctrines, I have a tendency to pay attention to what the early Church had to say on the subject. Of course, the most important early Church writings are compiled in the New Testament, and, therefore, the New Testament should be the first thing to study (together with the Old Testament). In fact, that's exactly what most denominations do. That said, there are certain topics in which the Bible is not as crystal clear as we would like it to be, leaving the door open for different --and sometimes even irreconcilable-- interpretations. When this happens, I personally think that it is a good idea to inform ourselves about what the apostolic fathers and other extra-biblical early Church authors had to say on the matter, especially if they were direct disciples of or at least not too many generations away from the primary sources, i.e. the apostles. In light of this, I was wondering if there are any denominations that have adopted any practice along these lines. **Question**: Are there any denominations that defend their doctrines (or at least, the ones which are most controversial) by appealing to extra-biblical evidence from the 1st/2nd century of the early Church? _________________________ Responding to concerns raised in the comments: *I think the question could be improved by giving examples of the "more or less ambiguous" passages and asking specifically about those. Currently the question invites a frame challenge because no denomination will accept the ambiguity: all will come down on one side or the other.* Below some examples: - [Mark 13:29-30](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Mark+13%3A29-30&version=ESV) , [Matthew 16:28](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Matthew+16%3A28&version=ESV) , [Matthew 24:34](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=matthew+24%3A34&version=ESV) , [Revelation 1:1](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Revelation+1%3A1&version=ESV) , [Revelation 22:6-21](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Revelation%2022%3A6-21&version=ESV) . These passages include expressions such as 'this generation' and 'soon', that full preterists claim to be indicative of an early second coming. Of course, everyone else disagrees. What did the early Church have to say about this discussion? - [1 Corinthians 13:8-9](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=1+Corinthians+13%3A8-9&version=ESV) . This passage is commonly cited by Cessationists to argue that the sign gifts have ceased. Of course, Continuationists disagree with this interpretation. What did the early Church have to say about this discussion? - [Colossians 2:16-17](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=colossians+2%3A16-17&version=ESV) . This passage is commonly cited to argue that Christians no longer have to keep the Sabbath or the Feast Days. Of course, Sabbatarians and denominations that still keep the Feast Days are against this interpretation. What did the early Church have to say on this? - There are doctrines such as Intercession of Saints that [lack a biblical basis](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/80656/50422) , yet certain denominations endorse them. What was the early Church's position on doctrines like these? - Other controversial topics: - Trinitarianism vs Unitarianism vs other views of the Godhead. - Christology (is Jesus divine, did Jesus pre-exist, etc.). - Pneumatology (is the Holy Spirit a person, etc.). - Etc.

Very simple question: in the history of Christianity, when was it claimed for the first time (**outside of the Bible, to avoid exegetical controversies, please**) that the gift of tongues could be used in the context of private prayer, i.e. that Christians could edify themselves by speaking in tongues in their private prayers to God? What is the oldest record of a claim like that ever being made? Are there any extra-biblical writings from early Church Fathers saying this, for example? (Notice that I'm not saying anything about "angelic languages", it could be prayers in real human languages unknown to the speaker too.) ____ **Evidence that this has been claimed at least once**: - How is speaking in tongues an edifying practice for individuals themselves?: https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/52555/38524 > There is perfect communication unhindered communication between the born again spirit of man and the Spirit of God. **Therefore it is a perfect prayer**. Such a prayer is the ultimate prayer for oneself because it is not impeded, overridden or hindered by rationalization of the will/emotion/mind of man. > > **In such a prayer you are praying a perfect prayer according to God’s will. And agreeing with God means getting the highest chance of answered prayers. Answers to prayers are extremely edifying** - What are the benefits of praying in tongues?: https://www.josephprince.com/bible-questions/praying-in-spirit/benefits-tongues > [...] **Now imagine if you had a heavenly prayer language that enables you to always pray perfect prayers in harmony with God’s will**, which is to bless you with good and perfect gifts (see James 1:17). This includes divine wisdom, **the building up of your spirit and your faith**, healing for your body, and wholeness for your mind. **Praying in tongues gives you access to all these blessings**. [...] - Speaking in Tongues – Self Edification: https://www.ministrymaker.com/speaking-in-tongues-self-edification > I, and thousands like me, have know the joy of building ourselves up in the Holy Ghost. The scriptures exhort us, “But ye, beloved, building up yourselves on your most holy faith, **praying in the Holy Ghost**” (Jude 20). There is no experience any sweeter. There is nothing in our worship and praise that is anymore wonderful; **there is nothing that satisfies anymore completely than the privilege of building ourselves up with the ministry of tongues**. - The mystery of self-edification by speaking in tongues: https://patrickoben.com/the-mystery-of-self-edification-by-speaking-in-tongues/ > Yes, not all believers will have the gift of speaking in tongues to serve others, **but all can pray in tongues to build themselves. Pray and pray in tongues again and again and build up your spiritual life like a magnificent edifice!** - Q257 : How Can Speaking in an Unknown Tongue Edify the Speaker?: http://www.spiritandtruth.org/questions/257.htm?x=x > [...] When taken in concert, **these passages indicate that Paul recognized situations where a person with the gift of tongues might speak “privately” in a Spirit-inspired, unlearned, foreign language without the benefit of interpretation or self-understanding**. Even though no public interpretation could be made, **there was still spiritual purpose and benefit which accrued**. > > 1. Speaking mysteries (information not yet revealed by God) in the spirit “to God.” > 2. The edification of the one speaking: even in situations where he, himself, did not understand the message and remained unable to interpret its meaning (1Cor. 14:5,13). > 3. The speaker's spirit prays speaking “to himself and to God.” - Build Yourself Up — Spirit, Soul And Body: https://emmanuelstephen.com/2016/12/13/build-yourself-up-spirit-soul-and-body/ > Beloved, if you are feeling emotionally drained or just physically tired from a hectic week, **begin to pray in tongues and allow the Holy Spirit to edify you**. God’s Spirit in you knows exactly what you need and will rest and recharge you — spirit, soul and body — **as you yield to Him and pray in tongues**. Sometimes, when I am tired after a long flight and still need to preach at a conference, **I will pray in tongues to edify myself**. I have found that when I do this, despite the jet lag, I will have the strength and clarity of mind to preach an anointed message and do whatever I need to do for the day. ____ Related BH.SE questions: - [How is speaking in tongues an edifying practice for individuals themselves?](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/52536/38524) - [Where are we to speak in tongues when no interpreter is around?](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/54224/38524) - [Praying with spirit and understanding, simultaneously or sequentially?](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/13251/38524) - [Are “praying in a tongue”, “praying with one's spirit” and “praying in the (Holy) Spirit” interchangeable expressions?](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/q/54273/38524)

I'm aware of the existence of many Pentecostal and Charistmatic groups that believe in the gift of tongues and claim to be able to exercise it. In fact, one can very easily find lots of videos of people who claim to be able to speak in tongues on platforms such as YouTube and others. Of course, that's not my question. What I'm asking is if there are any examples in recent history of [Xenoglossy](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Xenoglossy) (i.e. **tongue speaking *a la* Acts 2:1-13**), namely, someone suddenly speaks in a foreign language that they've never learned or studied **and** a native listener who does speak the language understands what they say (with both speaker and listener in shock because of what just happened). Are there any documented cases of tongue speaking *a la* Acts 2:1-13 in recent history (19th century on)? By documented case, I mean for example a missionary reporting this experience and then making it public via a missionary magazine or anything of that sort. Below Acts 2:1-13 (ESV) for reference: > 1 When the day of Pentecost arrived, they were all together in one place. 2 And suddenly there came from heaven a sound like a mighty rushing wind, and it filled the entire house where they were sitting. 3 And divided tongues as of fire appeared to them and rested on each one of them. 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit gave them utterance. > > 5 Now there were dwelling in Jerusalem Jews, devout men from every nation under heaven. 6 And at this sound the multitude came together, **and they were bewildered, because each one was hearing them speak in his own language**. 7 **And they were amazed and astonished, saying, “Are not all these who are speaking Galileans? 8 And how is it that we hear, each of us in his own native language?** 9 Parthians and Medes and Elamites and residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia, 10 Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya belonging to Cyrene, and visitors from Rome, 11 both Jews and proselytes, Cretans and Arabians—**we hear them telling in our own tongues the mighty works of God**.” 12 And all were amazed and perplexed, saying to one another, “What does this mean?” 13 But others mocking said, “They are filled with new wine.” _____________ Related: [Have a message in tongues and its interpretation ever been verified by an outsider fluent in both languages?](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/84255/50422)

According to Acts chapter 9, Paul was visited by the risen Christ -- the well-known "Road to Damascus" encounter. Has any other Christian, of good repute, claimed to have experienced a similar physical visitation by Jesus Christ Himself? I'm looking for post-NT examples, from any time in church history. ________ **Was Paul's encounter with Christ physical? What do I mean by "physical"?** That's a good question. By "physical" I mean an encounter in which Jesus intervenes in the physical realm, in the space-time of the person being encountered, causing physical effects. This is different, in my view, from a mere dream or vision where everything happens either in the person's mind or in the spirit realm through some sort of out-of-body experience (although OBEs would be a controversial one for advocates of soul sleep, since they do not believe that consciousness can exist outside the body.) Paul had at least two clear encounters with the Lord, and there is scriptural evidence to think that physical effects were involved: > 3 Now as he went on his way, he approached Damascus, and suddenly **a light from heaven shone around him**. 4 **And falling to the ground, he heard a voice** saying to him, “Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting me?” 5 And he said, “Who are you, Lord?” And he said, “I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting. 6 But rise and enter the city, and you will be told what you are to do.” 7 **The men who were traveling with him stood speechless, hearing the voice but seeing no one**. 8 Saul rose from the ground, and although his eyes were opened, he saw nothing. So they led him by the hand and brought him into Damascus. 9 **And for three days he was without sight**, and neither ate nor drank. (Acts 9:3-9 ESV) From the passage we notice that Paul (formerly Saul): - saw a light, - heard a voice, - fell to the ground, - went blind for 3 days as a result of the experience. Moreover, Paul's companions also heard the voice (v9). Therefore, although we don't know all the intricacies of how the spiritual and the physical work and interact (not even science has everything figured out about the physical, let alone the spiritual), I think it would be reasonable to say that Paul's encounter in Acts 9 had elements of both. The fact that both Paul and his companions were able to hear the same voice is consistent with the view that actual mechanical sound waves were produced during the encounter, reaching everyone's ears. Similarly, the fact that Paul went blind for three days seems to indicate that the light he saw affected his physical eyes. However, the exact nature of this light would be a mystery, since the eyes of Paul's companions couldn't perceive it. This nuance may indicate that it is possible for God to create complex experiences in which some aspects are physical, others are spiritual, and God can selectively choose who sees or perceives what. A second encounter is reported in Acts 23: > 11 **The following night the Lord stood by him and said**, “Take courage, for as you have testified to the facts about me in Jerusalem, so you must testify also in Rome.” (Acts 23:11 ESV) At face value, a plain interpretation of the verse would seem consistent with an actual physical visitation: Jesus stood literally by Paul's side and spoke audibly to him. But, was that really case? Did Jesus really stand next to Paul, touching the ground with his feet? Couldn't this simply have been a vision that Paul saw? We are not told. ____________ **Related or similar questions** - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/86550/50422 - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/85942/50422

We read at Luke 19:2-4 (NRSVCE): " A man was there named Zacchaeus; he was a chief tax collector and was rich. He was trying to see who Jesus was, but on account of the crowd he could not, because he was short in stature. So he ran ahead and climbed a sycamore tree to see him, because he was going to pass that way." Now, we see Jesus being depicted in movies and still pictures as a tall person; taller than his disciples are. If he was taller than others, Zacchaeus could have seen him from a distance ( well, he only wanted to see who Jesus was !) . One is therefore, inclined to believe that Jesus was of average height, or even less than that (Wikipedia says he was 5 feet 7 inches tall ). My question therefore is: Do the apocryphal teachings of Catholic Church tell us something on the height of Jesus ?

The prophet Jonah is a recognized saint in the Catholic Church and venerated as a saint among other denominations, too. In scripture, when Old Testament figures sin mortally and then repent and are later blessed, we get a very clear picture of the repentance in the text itself. For instance, Jude repents of his affair with his daughter in law and later receives his father's blessing. He was fourth in line. He receives his father's blessing because his three elder brothers committed sins for which they did not repent (at least, they do not repent in scripture, and presumably not before Israel passes on his blessing). David's repentance in his story is also evident in the text. Jonah is a different case. Jonah does repent of one sin. After he refuses God's call and faces a chastisement from God for that, he repents and does what God is calling him to. But, after he sees Nineveh repent, he lashes out at God and goes off to sulk in his hatred for the Ninevites. God tries to teach him another lesson with a plant, but this one seems to go unlearned. Jonah responds to this lesson by telling God that his own (Jonah's) anger is justified, and indeed that he is angry enough to die. God explains the point of the lesson to Jonah, and the text ends there. So Jonah has very clearly committed two grave sins that he hasn't repented of by the end of the text: he has hated his neighbor (he wants to see Ninevites face the wrath of God, even though they repented) and he has willed his own death out of anger, even if he doesn't take his own life. Alternatively, he has been prideful with God, if you read him as exaggerating to make a "point" to God and not actually wanting to die. In light of this, I want to know if there is any tradition that would support the idea that Jonah repented (besides merely his veneration as a Saint). Apocryphal texts, pre-christian Jewish traditions, anything that would hint at his re-conversion.

By *books collating modern-day miracle reports* I concretely mean Lee Strobel's book *The Case for Miracles: A Journalist Investigates Evidence for the Supernatural* ([amazon link](https://www.amazon.com/Case-Miracles-Journalist-Investigates-Supernatural/dp/0310259185)) and Craig S. Keener's book *Miracles : 2 Volumes: The Credibility of the New Testament Accounts* ([amazon link](https://www.amazon.com/Miracles-volumes-Credibility-Testament-Accounts-ebook/dp/B007KOI2PY/)) . I'm copying & pasting the prefaces below: Lee Strobel's book's preface: > New York Times bestselling author Lee Strobel trains his investigative sights on the hot-button question: is it really credible to believe God intervenes supernaturally in people's lives today? > > This provocative book starts with an unlikely interview in which America's foremost skeptic builds a seemingly persuasive case against the miraculous. But then Strobel travels the country to quiz scholars to see whether they can offer solid answers to atheist objections. **Along the way, he encounters astounding accounts of healings and other phenomena that simply cannot be explained away by naturalistic causes. The book features the results of exclusive new scientific polling that shows miracle accounts are much more common than people think**. > > What's more, Strobel delves into the most controversial question of all: what about miracles that don't happen? If God can intervene in the world, why doesn't he do it more often to relieve suffering? Many American Christians are embarrassed by the supernatural, not wanting to look odd or extreme to their neighbors. **Yet, The Case for Miracles shows not only that the miraculous is possible, but that God still does intervene in our world in awe-inspiring ways**. Here’s a unique book that examines all sides of this issue and comes away with **a passionate defense for God's divine action in lives today**.​ Craig S. Keener's book's preface: > Most modern prejudice against biblical miracle reports depends on David Hume's argument that uniform human experience precluded miracles. Yet current research shows that human experience is far from uniform. **In fact, hundreds of millions of people today claim to have experienced miracles**. New Testament scholar Craig Keener argues that it is time to rethink Hume's argument in light of the contemporary evidence available to us. This wide-ranging and meticulously researched two-volume study presents the most thorough current defense of the credibility of the miracle reports in the Gospels and Acts. **Drawing on claims from a range of global cultures and taking a multidisciplinary approach to the topic, Keener suggests that many miracle accounts throughout history and from contemporary times are best explained as genuine divine acts, lending credence to the biblical miracle reports**. Do Cessationists reject these books? ____ UPDATE: Craig S. Keener recently released a new book titled [Miracles Today: The Supernatural Work of God in the Modern World](https://www.amazon.ca/Miracles-Today-Supernatural-Modern-World-ebook/dp/B08MXZVXLW/) . The preface reads: > Do miracles still happen today? This book demonstrates that miraculous works of God, which have been part of the experience of the church around the world since Christianity began, continue into the present. Leading New Testament scholar Craig Keener addresses common questions about miracles and provides compelling reasons to believe in them today, including many accounts that offer evidence of verifiable miracles. > > This book gives an accessible and concise overview of one of Keener's most significant research topics. His earlier two-volume work on miracles stands as the definitive word on the topic, but its size and scope are daunting to many readers. This new book summarizes Keener's basic argument but contains substantial new material, including new accounts of the miraculous. It is suitable as a textbook but also accessible to church leaders and laypeople. _____ Related question: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/10020/50422