Some Protestants and Catholics believe that the "Angel of the LORD" mentioned in several Old Testament narratives is not merely a created angel but a manifestation of God—specifically understood by many as the pre-incarnate Christ. This is often described using the theological term theophany (meaning an appearance of God), though the term itself does not appear in Scripture. For instance: > It seems when the definite article “the” is used, it is specifying a unique being, separate from the other angels. The angel of the Lord speaks as God, identifies Himself with God, and exercises the responsibilities of God (Genesis 16:7-12; 21:17-18; 22:11-18; Exodus 3:2; Judges 2:1-4; 5:23; 6:11-24; 13:3-22; 2 Samuel 24:16; Zechariah 1:12; 3:1; 12:8). In several of these appearances, those who saw the angel of the Lord feared for their lives because they had “seen the Lord.” Therefore, it is clear that in at least some instances, the angel of the Lord is a theophany, an appearance of God in physical form….whether the angel of the Lord was a pre-incarnate appearance of Christ (Christophany) or an appearance of God the Father (theophany), it is highly likely that the phrase “the angel of the Lord” usually identifies a physical appearance of God. (Protestant apologetics site GotQuestions.org ) A Catholic “Dictionary” describes the term “theophany” like this: > A direct communication or appearance by God to human beings. Instances: God confronting Adam and Eve after their disobedience (Genesis 3:8); God appearing to Moses out of a burning bush (Exodus 3:2-6); Abraham pleading with Yahweh to be merciful to Sodomites (Genesis 18:23). These theophanies were temporary manifestations. They were not like the Incarnation, which, though it began in time, will continue for all eternity. One such “theophany” in the form of “the angel of the Lord” is found in Zechariah: > Then he showed me Joshua the high priest standing before the Angel of the LORD, and Satan standing at his right hand to oppose him. (Zechariah 3:1 - NKJV) Many Protestant and some Catholic scholars interpret this account as a theophany—an appearance of God in the Old Testament. In particular, some suggest that the figure identified as the Angel of the LORD may be a pre-incarnate manifestation of the second person of the Trinity, later revealed in the New Testament as Jesus Christ. > This angel was Christ, or the Logos, mentioned Zechariah 1:11, and called the Lord in the following verse (Benson Commentary) > standing before the Angel of the Lord; not any created angel, but Christ the Angel of God's presence, who is called Jehovah, Zechariah 3:2 is the rebuker of Satan, and the advocate of his people; (Gill’s Exposition of the Entire Bible) Interesting with this account is the following utterance by this “angel of the LORD” in Zechariah 3:2 > And the LORD [the Angel of the LORD speaking as the LORD] said to Satan, “The LORD rebuke you, Satan! The LORD who has chosen Jerusalem rebuke you! Is this not a brand plucked from the fire (Zechariah 3:2 NKJV) Why does GOD in the form of the second person of the Trinity, manifesting Himself as the Angel of the LORD not rebuke Satan, but asks YHWH (the LORD) to do so? The Archangel Michael in Jude 9 uses a phrase closely resembling Zechariah 3:2—“The Lord rebuke you”—when disputing with the devil. While not a word-for-word quote (wording differs slightly across Hebrew and Greek), the parallel strongly echoes the rebuke found in the Old Testament passage: > Yet Michael the archangel, in contending with the devil, when he disputed about the body of Moses, dared not bring against him a reviling accusation, but said, “The Lord rebuke you“ (Jude 9 NKJV) Could it be that the Angel of the LORD similarly “dared not bring against him (Satan) a reviling accusation” in Zechariah 3:2? If so, how could He be GOD? What other reason could there be NOT to rebuke Satan? One possible answer is found in 2 Peter 2:11 > whereas angels, who are greater in power and might [than humans], do not bring a reviling accusation against them before the Lord. This would suggest that the Angel of the Lord does have the same level of authority granted by GOD YHWH than many other Angels. It would mean that “the Angel of the LORD” is neither God nor the second person of the Trinity. How do those that hold to the position of “the Angel of the Lord” in Zechariah 3:1-2 being Christ pre-incarnate/God reconcile this? Why does the AOTL not rebuke Satan but asks YHWH/the LORD to do so?

And what is the name of this Angel of the LORD, who later also made many other appearances, but only in the Old Testament?

**To those who believe that the Angel of the Lord who appears in several situations in the Old Testament was the pre-incarnate Christ:** I have come across many writings and opinions from some within the Evangelical Christian movement, asserting that the "angel of the lord" in the Old Testament, is pre-incarnate Jesus (a Christophany). See, for example: or Google: **"Is Jesus the Angel of the Lord?"** On two ocassions in the Bible, the Angel of the Lord appears to Hagar (Genesis 16:7-13 and Genesis 21:17-19). That is, when Hagar is pregnant and being harshly treated by Sarah and later when Hagar runs out of water after Abraham sends her and her son away as demanded by Sarah and consented to by God. **The Angel of the Lord picks the child's name and blesses him on two separate ocassions (before and after his birth). What are the theological and spiritual implications of the fact that Jesus directly and personally blessed Ishmael twice?** **I am not aware of any Biblical passage of Isaac being blessed by God as a child or having an encounter with the Angel of the Lord**

**Summary of the question**: How can the "angel of the Lord" be the pre-incarnate Jesus if Hebrews 1:5 makes the point that God never said "Thou art my Son" to *any angel*? Those who believe Michael the archangel is Jesus (JW, SDA, and others) usually get Hebrews 1:5 quoted by those who don't share their belief about Michael in an effort to disprove their belief. But what about those who believe the angel of the Lord is the pre-incarnate Jesus? Doesn't the same verse disprove that belief? This is a fairly widely accepted stance, in my opinion. We even have the following question with good answers on this very site: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/89609/on-what-basis-do-some-protestants-believe-the-angel-of-the-lord-is-the-pre-incar However, some groups like Jehovah's Witnesses (due to the belief that Jesus is Michael the Archangel) have to respond to questions like this one: https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/78168/dont-the-questions-of-hebrews-15-and-113-demand-an-answer-of-none-so-how-c **How would a Protestant who believes the angel of the Lord is the pre-incarnate Jesus (or any Christian who believes this) respond to a very similar question?** If one believes that the angel of the Lord was the pre-incarnate Jesus, how can that be reconciled with Hebrews 1:5 (KJV): > For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son? I've heard some explain this by saying that the angel of the Lord was not a created angel so that excludes him from the context of "the angels" in this passage. However, the verse doesn't say, "For unto which of the *created* angels said he at any time"... Of course, the basic meaning of "angel" in both the Hebrew and Greek is "messenger". But that doesn't really change the meaning of the passage either. I'm curious how this could be answered satisfactorily.

St. Thomas Aquinas is known to make excellent **conceptual distinctions** in philosophy and theology, most critically in his philosophy and psychology of the human soul, the nature of truth & love in God as well as in a human person, the intra-Trinitarian relations and the works of the Trinity *ad extra*, the interaction of angels with humans (which exorcists use), and many many more areas. So it is reasonable to ask **how we would use St. Thomas's own distinctions to analyze his "private revelation" of Christ to him** where Aquinas "heard" Jesus said: > Thou hast written well of me, Thomas; what reward wilt thou have?" To which St. Thomas responded: > None other than Thyself, Lord (*source*: [this article](https://www.churchpop.com/when-christ-spoke-from-a-crucifix-the-mystical-vision-of-st-thomas-aquinas/)) My question has to do with the **nature of this experience** that I hope an answer will use St. Thomas's own distinctions to describe it. Is it ecstasy? Is it beatific vision? Is it private revelation? Is it a Vision? Is it Christophany? Is it apparition? Is it Word of Knowledge (that some Christians claim to have today in Charismatic circles)? Is it like St. Paul being transported to 3rd heaven? Is it an out of body experience? Was it audible, visible, or non-empirical but palpable? Did the 3 fellow Dominicans who witnessed the account hear it too? Or was it similar to private mental seeing like when the light of faith permeates the light of reason? The curious thing is that Aquinas's experience is not listed in the *Wikipedia* article on [Catholic Church approved list of private revelations](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_private_revelations_approved_by_the_Catholic_Church) nor in *Wikipedia* article on [Visions of Jesus and Mary](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Visions_of_Jesus_and_Mary) . Was it an oversight on *Wikipedia* part? Or was the nature of the experience different than "private revelation" and "vision"? It is so widely cited even in scholarly biographies of St. Thomas Aquinas that we cannot deem it mere legend, but did the Vatican ever authenticated St. Thomas's experience in the first place?

The Bible records several instances of *Christophanies*, i.e., occasions where Jesus appeared and/or spoke to his disciples after having ascended to heaven. Probably the most well-known example is Paul's encounter with Jesus when he was on his way to Damascus ([Acts 9:3-6](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+9%3A3-6&version=ESV)) , but we also have the conversation between Ananias and the Lord ([Acts 9:10-16](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+9%3A10-16&version=ESV)) and Stephen's vision of Jesus at the right hand of the Father ([Acts 7:54-56](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+7%3A54-56&version=ESV)) . And, of course, how to forget John's powerful encounter with Jesus on Patmos, an event that was recorded in detail in the book of Revelation. Which Christian groups or denominations believe these sorts of encounters with Jesus still happen today?

Has anyone claimed to have been called by God to ministry (e.g. to serve as a missionary, pastor, evangelist, prophet, apostle, etc.) through some dramatic "Road to Damascus" encounter (like the Apostle Paul in Acts 9), and subsequently counted with the trust and ministerial support from a community of fellow Christians who believed in their testimony and backed their ministry? The Apostle Paul is an obvious example, but for the purposes of this question he obviously doesn't count. I'm interested in any examples from the 2nd century onwards, especially in modern times. Are there any modern (self-proclaimed) 'Apostle Pauls'?

According to Acts chapter 9, Paul was visited by the risen Christ -- the well-known "Road to Damascus" encounter. Has any other Christian, of good repute, claimed to have experienced a similar physical visitation by Jesus Christ Himself? I'm looking for post-NT examples, from any time in church history. ________ **Was Paul's encounter with Christ physical? What do I mean by "physical"?** That's a good question. By "physical" I mean an encounter in which Jesus intervenes in the physical realm, in the space-time of the person being encountered, causing physical effects. This is different, in my view, from a mere dream or vision where everything happens either in the person's mind or in the spirit realm through some sort of out-of-body experience (although OBEs would be a controversial one for advocates of soul sleep, since they do not believe that consciousness can exist outside the body.) Paul had at least two clear encounters with the Lord, and there is scriptural evidence to think that physical effects were involved: > 3 Now as he went on his way, he approached Damascus, and suddenly **a light from heaven shone around him**. 4 **And falling to the ground, he heard a voice** saying to him, “Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting me?” 5 And he said, “Who are you, Lord?” And he said, “I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting. 6 But rise and enter the city, and you will be told what you are to do.” 7 **The men who were traveling with him stood speechless, hearing the voice but seeing no one**. 8 Saul rose from the ground, and although his eyes were opened, he saw nothing. So they led him by the hand and brought him into Damascus. 9 **And for three days he was without sight**, and neither ate nor drank. (Acts 9:3-9 ESV) From the passage we notice that Paul (formerly Saul): - saw a light, - heard a voice, - fell to the ground, - went blind for 3 days as a result of the experience. Moreover, Paul's companions also heard the voice (v9). Therefore, although we don't know all the intricacies of how the spiritual and the physical work and interact (not even science has everything figured out about the physical, let alone the spiritual), I think it would be reasonable to say that Paul's encounter in Acts 9 had elements of both. The fact that both Paul and his companions were able to hear the same voice is consistent with the view that actual mechanical sound waves were produced during the encounter, reaching everyone's ears. Similarly, the fact that Paul went blind for three days seems to indicate that the light he saw affected his physical eyes. However, the exact nature of this light would be a mystery, since the eyes of Paul's companions couldn't perceive it. This nuance may indicate that it is possible for God to create complex experiences in which some aspects are physical, others are spiritual, and God can selectively choose who sees or perceives what. A second encounter is reported in Acts 23: > 11 **The following night the Lord stood by him and said**, “Take courage, for as you have testified to the facts about me in Jerusalem, so you must testify also in Rome.” (Acts 23:11 ESV) At face value, a plain interpretation of the verse would seem consistent with an actual physical visitation: Jesus stood literally by Paul's side and spoke audibly to him. But, was that really case? Did Jesus really stand next to Paul, touching the ground with his feet? Couldn't this simply have been a vision that Paul saw? We are not told. ____________ **Related or similar questions** - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/86550/50422 - https://christianity.stackexchange.com/q/85942/50422

**More restrictive version of the question**: Has the Christian God ever revealed Himself to someone who had never heard of Him before? By this I mean someone who never heard about the Bible, who never heard about Jesus, who never saw a picture of Jesus or the cross or anything related to Christianity. In other words, someone who was completely ignorant in every way, shape and form regarding the Christian faith. Has anyone in such a condition had an encounter with the Christian God that led them to convert to Christianity? **Less restrictive version of the question**: If the requirements above are too demanding, answers addressing less restrictive versions of the question are welcome as well. For example, in today's world it's probably very unlikely to find people who have never heard of Christianity, but it would still be interesting to know about cases where someone, who was barely aware of Christianity's existence and never took it seriously, for some reason received a divine revelation of a very specific passage in the Bible that they didn't even know existed, or had an unexpected experience with the Holy Spirit (like Cornelius in Acts 10) even though they didn't even know that the Holy Spirit was a thing, etc. Essentially, any type of experience in which the individual had no prior knowledge about it and the experience itself only makes (the most) sense under a Christian worldview. *Note: I'm looking for extra-biblical examples, of course.*

Christophanies (a.k.a. encounters with Jesus) are supernatural experiences which are entirely within the realm of possibility according to Scripture. Three clear examples are Paul's ([Acts 9:3-6](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+9%3A3-6&version=ESV)) , Ananias's ([Acts 9:10-16](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+9%3A10-16&version=ESV)) and Stephen's ([Acts 7:54-56](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=acts+7%3A54-56&version=ESV)) . In light of this, I was wondering if there are any published extra-biblical testimonies about Christophanies, in which Jesus explicitly stated his divine status. Has anyone ever published a testimony of their encounter with Christ, in which Jesus explicitly affirmed or denied his deity?

I personally believe that there are biblical grounds for praying to Jesus (e.g. [this](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/59017/38524) and [this](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/62358/what-is-the-biblical-basis-for-praying-to-jesus-as-opposed-to-praying-to-god-in)) , and, as far as I'm aware, many Christians believe the same. However, I'm currently in ignorance with regards to the Biblical Unitarian position on the subject. I have four questions: 1. Do Biblical Unitarians believe that praying to Jesus is a legitimate, scriptural practice? 2. If the answer to the previous question is yes: do they also believe that Jesus can answer questions verbally (as in [Acts 9:10-16](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Acts+9%3A10-16&version=ESV) and [2 Cor 12:8-9](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2+Cor+12%3A8-9&version=ESV)) ? 3. If the answer to the previous question is yes: do they believe then that if one prays to Jesus and asks him if he is God, he will respond with an unambiguous answer? 4. If the answer to the previous question is yes: has a Biblical Unitarian ever done this?

I pattern that I discovered after watching many testimonies is that occasionally people report powerful spiritual encounters that have set them instantly free from behavioral addictions, substance addictions, compulsive behaviors, etc. The following are illustrative examples of this: (https://youtu.be/hyHAFvPn-ik?t=1001) , (https://youtu.be/Xru8iH1wQ1M?t=239) , (https://youtu.be/iJi8ldHeg9I?t=239) , (https://youtu.be/DHT7pfZ_MuU) , (https://youtu.be/oy3tc4ncsq4) , (https://youtu.be/kovVCPBadJY) . Are there any scriptural parallels to this? Can we find records in Scripture of individuals who had notable spiritual encounters that led them to quit addictions instantly and without struggling?

I've heard many testimonies and claims about Muslims converting to Christianity because Jesus allegedly appeared to them in dreams and visions. For the interested reader, these are some example sources making such claims: (https://youtu.be/9SAPOLKF59U) , (https://youtu.be/Th-yn5IIufw) , (https://youtu.be/B6zV5bACWMc) , (https://youtu.be/-FylmW4TzP4) , (https://youtu.be/1a2SIfO_eYs) , (https://youtu.be/utOTjdxHUnM) . Is there any biblical support for this phenomenon? Can we find any parallels or prophecies about this phenomenon in Scripture?

Shadrach, Meshach and Abednego, who is understood as the fourth person in the fire? In the third chapter of book of Daniel after King Nebicanesor throws Shadrach, Meshach and Abednego into the furnace he sees four people in the furnace instead of three, who are talking with each other. - What is understand of who this person is? An angel, a [Christophany](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Christophany) ? - What is the current Christian understanding of this? - How would a Jewish person in ancient times have understood this? - Is there any extra biblical Jewish sources/tradition naming the fourth person (such as a specific angel, etc)?

The doctrine about Christophany teaches that before the eternal Son was incarnated he already appeared in the Old Testament as **the Angel of the Lord**. The question is if there is a New Testament backround about this.