I have have read the posts related to this question, but they do not tackle this issue from the same angle. For the related questions i have seen, the focus was only on why we inherit Adam's sins. **I flip and ask why we don't inherit Adam's good deeds**? For those that may say we inherited his "sinful nature" or capacity to do evil but not the original sin itself, that doesn't tally well with the Protestant concept that flows from "we (including children), have all sinned and fallen short of the glory of God". **Personally, I believe children come from God pure and without sin.** **I believe Adam's sins were his own sins (the "original" and any other sins), and I should not be asked about them; because Adam was a human being with his own issues, and I have mine**. To argue otherwise is to contradict Ezekiel 18:19-21 **"The soul who sins shall die. The son shall not bear the guilt of the father, nor the father bear the guilt of the son**. The righteousness of the righteous shall be upon himself, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon himself.."

**Hebrews 1:2 (KJV)** says about the Son of God: > [God] hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath > appointed **heir of all things**, by whom also he made the worlds; So God (the Father I suppose) has appointed his Son (Jesus) as heir of all things. How is this possible though, when Jesus is fully God, as the OT says about God in **1 Chronicles 29:11 (KJV)**: > Thine, O LORD, is the greatness, and the power, and the glory, and the > victory, and the majesty: **for all that is in the heaven and in the > earth is thine; thine is the kingdom, O LORD, and thou art exalted as > head above all.** How can God the Son be appointed heir of „all things“ if “all that is in the heaven and in the earth“ belongs to Him already? How can God the Son be exalted if God is already „exalted as head above all“? Does 1 Chronicles 29:11 speak about God the Father or about the triune God? If it’s speaking about God the Father only, does that mean that God the Son is below God the Father in authority, power and „wealth“ so that God the Father could appoint Him heir? If so, why wasn’t Jesus already appointed heir before „these last days“?

Does the Catholic canon law say anything about the case where a Catholic priest unexpectedly inherits an estate by default since all his siblings (who don't have kids) have died? - In the case of a priest who has taken a vow of poverty (like in a religious order): can this priest adopt an adult as "child" for inheritance purpose to dispose the assets? If not, are there other mechanism that allow the priest to make decisions regarding the beneficiary and/or the management of the estate? - In the case of a diocesan priest who does *not* take a vow of poverty, can he become owner of the estate and manage it? A related question: does this inheritance now belong either to the diocese or to the religious order (like the Jesuits)?

***What is the biblical basis for thinking God established the principle of birthright and inheritance and that He has sovereign control over who He elects*** Was God himself the author of this teaching or not? Although birthright privileges for the firstborn son are mentioned in the Bible at the time of Isaac’s death (circa 1886 B.C.), it was not established in Mosaic Law for another 440 years. Even secular sources acknowledge that the custom of passing on rights and privileges to the eldest son “was sufficiently common in the Middle East for the passage [about Esau and Jacob] to seem plausible to the people living there prior to the Roman Empire.” See Wikipedia’s article on [Primogeniture](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Primogeniture#Biblical) . The first mention of birthright and inheritance in the Bible is in Genesis chapter 25. Abraham’s son Isaac became father to twin boys (Esau and Jacob). The firstborn son had the right to inherit a double portion because “he is the beginning of his [father’s] strength; the right of the firstborn is his” (Deuteronomy 21:17). The birthright (*bekorah*) has to do with both position and inheritance. By birthright, the firstborn son inherited the leadership of the family and the judicial authority of his father. The father would pronounce a blessing which was considered to be the formal act of acknowledging the firstborn as the principal heir. Yet, even before the twins were born, the Lord predicted that the older (Esau) would serve the younger (Jacob) (Genesis 25:23). There are several instances where God’s sovereign will decreed that the firstborn son would not always be the son to inherit. God cursed Cain, the first son born to Adam and Eve, and blessed Seth, the third son. Through Seth came Noah, then Shem (who was not the oldest son) and on to Abraham and Isaac (who was not the oldest son), then to Jacob. God changed Jacob’s name to Israel (Genesis 32:28), and he became the father of the 12 tribes of Israel. Then, in Exodus 4:23 God calls Israel “my firstborn son”. This goes beyond any human notion of the rights and privileges of the firstborn son but speaks of God’s divine will. God also declared Jesus to be his Son (Matthew 3:17), who is described as “the firstborn of the dead, and the ruler of kings on earth” (Revelation 1:5). There is a spiritual application to this issue of firstborn and inheritance. What is the biblical basis for thinking God established the principle of birthright and inheritance and that He has sovereign control over who He elects

Are there rules regarding inheritance of property in Catholicism? For example, can a non-Catholic inherit property from a Catholic according to the Catholic faith?