Is there clear evidence of how old was Rebecca when she married Isaac? The different options from the Jews perspective is varied: - Some sources have 3 years old and sent with a wet nurse - Around 10 years - Around 12-14 years Rebecca’s birth seems to have taken place after Isaac's sacrifice at Mount Moriah and was around the death of Abraham's wife Sarah.

Abraham was from a pagan family, separated by his call to God. His families I supposed weren't different from the Canaanites in pagan worship. In some instances, the Canaanites proved more morally upright than Abraham and Isaac by instructing their fellows not to interfere with Isaac and Abraham's wives (family), meting with dire consequences anyone who does break such binding law. Genesis 26: 6-11 If this proves true, why did Abraham and Isaac instructed the heirs of the covenant never to marry from the Canaanites (pagans) but should marry from their families (pagans) in Padan-aran?

I would like to know, if possible, at least the approximate age of Isaac when Abraham offered him as a sacrifice to God. Based on Abraham's advanced age, it would seem that Isaac did not resist in being bound to the wood. Also, it seems that he was no toddler since he helped carry the wood that he was to be bound to. Has a reasonable estimate of Isaac's age ever been ascertained at the time of his sacrificial offering to God? Thank you.

We see in Gen 22:13 how Abraham saw a ram caught by the horn in a thicket and sacrificed it in lieu of Isaac. Coming over to New Testament we see Jesus being made to wear a crown of thorns. It is believed that the thorn Jesus wore had been made from the twigs of bush. We see here a strange resemblance. Unfortunately, none of the Evangelists draw a parallel between the ram that Abraham sacrificed and Jesus who offered himself on sacrifice vis a vis the thorny twigs that held on to the heads of both. My question therefore is: Are there any teachings from the side of the Catholic Church, that establish a co-relation between Christ and the ram that Abraham sacrificed?

I know that Abraham came before Moses, and so there were no Ten Commandments yet. However, if Abraham killed Isaac out of obedience to God, would that be considered a sin in any way? I feel like the answer is clearly "no", but I would appreciate any input.

What is the oldest copy of Genesis 26, and is there a place to see a side-by-side translation? thank you!

Did he really sacrifice him, or when he was about to sacrifice him, did God put a lamb in his place? Isaac died a sacrificial death? Genesis 22 (NIV) > 1 Some time later God tested Abraham. He said to him, “Abraham!” “Here > I am,” he replied. 2 Then God said, “Take your son, your only son, > whom you love—Isaac—and go to the region of Moriah. Sacrifice him > there as a burnt offering on a mountain I will show you.” > > 12 “Do not lay a hand on the boy,” he said. “Do not do anything to > him. Now I know that you fear God, because you have not withheld from > me your son, your only son.” If Abraham really sacrificed Isaac, isn't it a cruel act, just to show Abraham's faith?

Mark 12:26-27 (also see Matthew 22:32, Luke 20:38) is > "But concerning the dead rising, have you not read about the burning > bush in the Book of Moses, how God told him, ‘I am the God of Abraham, > the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob’? 27 **He is not the God of the > dead, but of the living.** You are badly mistaken!" How do soul sleep adherents explain this passage? Is the idea that people who are 'sleeping' are still 'alive' in the relevant sense, albeit not conscious? Or by being a God of the living, is Jesus referring to a future state of full aliveness for Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob? Or something else?

In Genesis 24, Abraham tells his servant to go back to his homeland and find a wife for Isaac from Abraham's country and Abraham's relatives. First of all, I suppose I can understand why Isaac was not allowed to marry a Canaanite. Abraham didn't want Isaac, the son of promise, to be led astray by a wife outside the covenant, right? But that still doesn't explain why the wife had to come from within Abraham's relatives. Sure, the servant could go back to his hometown; but surely there were other eligible young women among other families?

I understand the significance of God's renaming. But I wonder if anyone has done any research as to why the writers of scripture (and consequently, Jews and Christians today) refer to AbraHAM (changed name), Isaac (never offered a new name) and then JACOB (the name BEFORE God changed it to Israel)? You never hear "Abram, Isaac, and Jacob" and you rarely hear "Abraham, Isaac, and Israel." (Though there are a few instances as pointed out below.) Why is Jacob not granted his new name when his covenant participation is referenced? Even in Genesis, once Abram is renamed Abraham in Gen 17:5, he is never again referred to as Abram, but "Jacob" and "Israel" continue to be used almost interchangeably throughout the Genesis narrative. Not simply looking for opinions, but rather if someone has had insight (possibly building upon the insight of others) that can shed light on this. The theory has been posed that it could be as simple as avoiding confusion between Israel the nation and Israel the person - which is verifiable because it can be assumed that "Israel" was a people group even if Moses wrote the pentateuch with his own hand. If no significant research has been done on this topic, I may endeavor to spend a few weeks/months on answering my own question because I do believe it is valid and I do believe it is appropriately a matter of scholarly research.

In Genesis 27, when elderly Isaac thought he was blessing his son Esau, but he was actually blessing his son Jacob through the deceit of Jacob's mother, he said to Jacob: > See, the smell of my son is as the smell of a field which the LORD > hath blessed: Therefore God give thee of the dew of heaven, and the > fatness of the earth, and plenty of corn and wine: Let people serve > thee, and nations bow down to thee: be lord over thy brethren, and let > thy mother's sons bow down to thee: cursed be every one that curseth > thee, and blessed be he that blesseth thee (Genesis 27:27b-29). My Bible commentaries don't explain how this blessing was borne out. What do Protestant or Catholic authorities say about how this blessing was fulfilled in Jacob's life?

An agnostic asked me why did a loving God ask Abraham to kill his own son? I told him it was a test from God. Did answer him correctly? I did not say anymore